Quick recall · 226 cards
Short MCQ-style retrieval prompts. Tap a card to reveal the answer.
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Computer has a built-in system clock that emits millions of regularly spaced electric pulses per _____ called clock cycles.
A · second
Modern CPUs operate at GHz frequencies (billions of cycles per **second**). Clock cycles synchronize instruction execution. Option A is correct as clock rates are measured in Hz (cycles/second)[6].
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Processor which is complex and expensive to produce is ________.
C · CISC
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Arrange the following types of memories according to their access speed from fastest to slowest: (A) Hard Disk Drive (HDD), (B) Cache Memory, (C) Random Access Memory (RAM), (D) Registers
D · (D), (B), (C), (A)
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Which of the following memory types is used to store a copy of data or instructions stored in larger memories inside the CPU?
A · Level 1 cache
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What is the next level of memory hierarchy after the L2 cache?
C · Main memory
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The last level on the hierarchy scale of memory devices is:
B · Secondary memory
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Arrange the following memory types from fastest to slowest access time: (1) Magnetic tape, (2) Magnetic disk, (3) Main memory, (4) Register
D · Register, main memory, magnetic disk, magnetic tape
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Which memory type provides the fastest data access in a computer system?
C · Registers
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What is the primary reason for using cache memory in computer systems?
B · To exploit the spatial locality of reference in a program
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A device that allows users to feed data into a computer for analysis and storage and to give commands to the computer is called
B · Input device
PYQ
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User communicates with a computer with the help of which devices?
D · Both a and b
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Which device allows you to enter data and instructions into a computer?
A · Input device
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Which of the following is an output device?
a) Input
b) Monitor
c) Output
d) Keyboard
B · Monitor
PYQ
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Which of the following groups are only input devices?
C · C
PYQ
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Which port can be used for transferring files between two computers?
a) Serial port
b) Parallel port
c) Firewire port
d) Infrared port
C · Firewire port
PYQ
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Which one of the following is the most suitable device for inputting a short report into a computer?
B · Keyboard
PYQ
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Which of the following is an example of an input device?
C · Keyboard
PYQ · 2024
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What is information lifecycle management?
B · Managing data throughout its lifecycle from creation to disposal
PYQ · 2024
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What are the core elements of data center infrastructure?
B · Servers, storage systems, networking equipment, and power and cooling systems
PYQ
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What component of the motherboard holds the CPU and allows replacing it without soldering?
B · CPU Socket
PYQ
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What part of the motherboard connects the power supply unit cable?
C · Power Supply Connector
PYQ
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Which chipset handles data transfer between memory, CPU, and video card?
D · Northbridge Chipset
PYQ
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Which component supports a wide variety of devices with differing bus speeds?
C · PCIe Slot
PYQ
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Which chipset contains the BIOS and is also known as CMOS?
C · BIOS Chipset
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What does BIOS stand for, and where is it located?
C · Basic Input Output System, located on the motherboard chipset
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What does the Southbridge chipset typically handle communication with?
C · Hard drives and USB ports
The **Southbridge chipset** handles communication with lower-speed peripherals such as **hard drives, USB ports**, and other I/O devices. Northbridge manages CPU/RAM/GPU. Option C is correct.
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What is the most common motherboard form factor used in desktop PCs?
A · ATX
**ATX** is the most common motherboard form factor for desktop PCs, offering standard size for full features like multiple expansion slots and RAM. Others are smaller variants. Option A is correct.
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Which is the smallest unit amongst the following with reference to the ATM?
C · virtual circuit
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IEEE 802.8 is/was –
D · Fiber Optic TAG
IEEE 802.8 was the Fiber Optic TAG, which has been disbanded. It focused on fiber optic technical advisory group standards for networking hardware.[4]
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Which of the following was the IBM Token bus?
D · IEEE 802.4
IEEE 802.4 standard defines the IBM Token Bus network, which is a physical and data link layer standard for token-passing bus networks using broadband signaling.[4]
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Which of the following memory types is the fastest but has the smallest capacity?
C · Registers
Registers are the fastest memory available inside the CPU but have very limited capacity compared to cache, RAM, and secondary storage.
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Which characteristic best describes secondary storage compared to primary memory?
B · Non-volatile and slower access
Secondary storage is non-volatile, meaning it retains data without power, but access times are slower compared to primary memory like RAM.
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Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic used to compare different memory types?
D · Instruction set architecture
Instruction set architecture relates to CPU design, not a characteristic of memory types.
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Refer to the diagram below showing a cache memory organization. Which cache mapping technique is illustrated if each block of main memory maps to exactly one cache line?
A · Direct mapping
Direct mapping assigns each block of main memory to exactly one cache line, as shown in the diagram.
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In a fully associative cache, which of the following is TRUE about block placement?
A · Each block can be placed in any cache line
Fully associative cache allows any block of main memory to be placed in any cache line, offering maximum flexibility.
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Which cache mapping technique combines the features of direct and associative mapping by dividing cache into sets?
A · Set-associative mapping
Set-associative mapping divides cache into sets where each block maps to a set but can be placed in any line within that set.
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Refer to the diagram below illustrating a set-associative cache with 2-way sets. If the main memory block address is 1010 (binary), which set will it be mapped to in the cache?
B · Set 1
Using the least significant bits of the block address to index sets, block 1010 maps to set 1 in a 2-way set-associative cache with 4 sets.
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Which of the following best describes the impact of memory hierarchy on system performance?
A · Higher levels of hierarchy have slower access times but larger capacity
Memory hierarchy is designed so that higher levels (like secondary storage) have larger capacity but slower access times, while lower levels (like registers) are faster but smaller.
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Refer to the memory hierarchy block diagram below. Which level is most likely to have the highest hit rate in a typical computer system?
D · Registers
Registers have the highest hit rate because they are accessed directly by the CPU and are the fastest memory, though smallest in size.
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Which of the following formulas correctly expresses the average memory access time (AMAT) given hit time \( t_h \), miss rate \( r_m \), and miss penalty \( t_p \)?
A · \( AMAT = t_h + r_m \times t_p \)
Average memory access time is calculated as hit time plus the product of miss rate and miss penalty.
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In virtual memory systems, what is the primary purpose of paging?
B · To divide logical memory into fixed-size pages
Paging divides logical memory into fixed-size pages which are mapped to physical memory frames, enabling virtual memory management.
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Refer to the diagram below illustrating virtual memory address translation. If the page number is 5 and the page size is 4 KB, what is the physical address offset for logical address 0x1400?
A · 0x400
The offset within the page is the logical address modulo page size: \( 0x1400 \mod 0x1000 = 0x400 \).
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Which hardware component is responsible for translating virtual addresses to physical addresses in a paging system?
A · Memory Management Unit (MMU)
The Memory Management Unit (MMU) handles address translation from virtual to physical addresses using page tables.
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Which of the following is NOT a function of the Memory Management Unit (MMU)?
C · Cache replacement
Cache replacement is managed by the cache controller, not the MMU.
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Refer to the diagram below of a TLB (Translation Lookaside Buffer) operation. What happens when a virtual address is not found in the TLB?
A · A TLB miss occurs and page table lookup is performed
On a TLB miss, the system performs a page table lookup to find the physical address and updates the TLB.
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Which of the following memory types is characterized by non-volatility and slower access speed compared to RAM?
B · ROM
ROM (Read-Only Memory) is non-volatile and slower compared to RAM types like DRAM and cache memory.
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Which characteristic best describes SRAM compared to DRAM?
C · Volatile and faster access time
SRAM is volatile but faster than DRAM and is typically used for cache memory due to its speed.
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Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic used to compare memory types?
C · Color of the memory chip
The color of the memory chip is irrelevant to memory characteristics; access time, volatility, and cost per bit are standard comparison metrics.
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Refer to the diagram below showing a cache memory mapping. Which mapping technique is illustrated if each block from main memory maps to exactly one cache line?
B · Direct Mapping
Direct mapping assigns each block of main memory to exactly one cache line, as shown in the diagram.
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In a 2-way set associative cache with 64 sets, how many cache lines are there in total?
C · 128
In a 2-way set associative cache, total cache lines = number of sets × ways = 64 × 2 = 128.
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Which cache mapping technique reduces conflict misses by allowing a block to be placed in any cache line?
B · Fully Associative Mapping
Fully associative mapping allows any block to be placed in any cache line, reducing conflict misses.
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In a cache memory system, if the hit ratio is 0.9 and the main memory access time is 100 ns, what is the average memory access time when cache access time is 10 ns?
A · 19 ns
Average access time = (Hit ratio × Cache time) + (Miss ratio × Main memory time) = (0.9 × 10) + (0.1 × 100) = 9 + 10 = 19 ns.
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Refer to the memory hierarchy chart below. Which level typically has the highest access speed but smallest capacity?
A · Registers
Registers are the fastest memory with the smallest capacity, located closest to the CPU.
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Which of the following is NOT a performance metric used to evaluate memory hierarchy?
C · Cache Size
Cache size is a design parameter, not a direct performance metric; hit ratio, access time, and miss penalty are performance metrics.
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If a memory hierarchy has a hit time of 5 ns, miss rate of 4%, and miss penalty of 100 ns, what is the average memory access time?
A · 9 ns
Average access time = Hit time + (Miss rate × Miss penalty) = 5 + (0.04 × 100) = 5 + 4 = 9 ns.
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Refer to the paging illustration below. What is the size of a page frame if the logical address space is 64 KB and page size is 4 KB?
A · 4 KB
Page frame size equals the page size, which is 4 KB in this case.
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Which of the following best describes the function of a page table in virtual memory systems?
B · Maps virtual addresses to physical addresses
Page tables map virtual addresses to physical addresses in memory management.
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In a demand paging system, what happens when a page fault occurs?
B · The required page is loaded from secondary storage to main memory
On a page fault, the required page is fetched from secondary storage (disk) into main memory.
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Which hardware component is responsible for translating virtual addresses to physical addresses in a paging system?
A · Memory Management Unit (MMU)
The MMU handles address translation from virtual to physical addresses in paging systems.
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Which of the following is a function of the Translation Lookaside Buffer (TLB) in memory management hardware?
A · Stores frequently accessed page table entries to speed up address translation
The TLB caches page table entries to reduce the time taken for address translation.
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Refer to the diagram below showing the components of memory management hardware. Which component directly handles page faults by initiating page loading from disk?
B · Page Fault Handler
The Page Fault Handler manages page faults by loading the required page from disk into memory.
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Which of the following is NOT an example of an input device?
C · Printer
A printer is an output device, while keyboard, mouse, and scanner are input devices used to provide data to the computer.
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Which input device is primarily used for capturing images and converting them into digital form?
B · Scanner
A scanner captures images or text and converts them into digital data, whereas joystick is for control, microphone for audio input, and touchpad for pointer control.
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Which of the following input devices is best suited for 3D spatial input in gaming applications?
C · 3D Mouse
A 3D mouse provides spatial input in three dimensions, making it ideal for 3D gaming and CAD applications, unlike trackball or joystick which are mostly 2D input devices.
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Which of the following is NOT a common output device?
D · Keyboard
Keyboard is an input device, while monitor, speaker, and plotter are output devices used to display or produce information from the computer.
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Which output device is most suitable for producing high-quality hard copy drawings and blueprints?
B · Plotter
Plotters are specialized output devices used for printing vector graphics such as engineering drawings and blueprints, unlike laser printers which are general-purpose printers.
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Which of the following output devices is primarily used for audio output?
A · Speaker
Speakers convert electrical signals into sound, providing audio output, whereas monitors, printers, and plotters provide visual or printed output.
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Which characteristic is essential for an input/output device to ensure efficient data communication with the CPU?
B · Low latency
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Which function is NOT typically performed by an I/O controller in a computer system?
C · Arithmetic computation
Arithmetic computation is performed by the CPU, not by the I/O controller. The controller manages data buffering, error detection, and device addressing to facilitate I/O operations.
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Refer to the diagram below showing an I/O interface block diagram. Which component is responsible for converting parallel data from the CPU into serial data for the device?
B · Shift Register
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Which interface standard is commonly used for connecting high-speed external I/O devices such as external hard drives and printers?
A · USB
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Refer to the device connection schematic below. Which type of bus is used to connect multiple I/O devices to the CPU in this diagram?
B · Parallel Bus
The diagram shows multiple lines connecting devices in parallel, indicating a parallel bus architecture which allows simultaneous data transfer over multiple lines.
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Which of the following data transfer modes allows the CPU to continue processing while the I/O device transfers data directly to memory without CPU intervention?
C · Direct Memory Access (DMA)
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Refer to the data transfer flowchart below. Which step represents the CPU responding to an I/O interrupt request?
B · Executing the interrupt service routine
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Which data transfer mode is most efficient for transferring large blocks of data between memory and I/O devices without burdening the CPU?
C · Direct Memory Access (DMA)
DMA transfers large blocks of data directly between memory and I/O devices without continuous CPU involvement, making it more efficient than programmed or interrupt-driven I/O for large data.
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Which of the following is an example of a common I/O device used for both input and output operations?
A · Touchscreen
Touchscreens serve as both input (touch detection) and output (display) devices, unlike printers (output only), microphones (input only), and monitors (output only).
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Which device is commonly used in ATMs to both receive user input and display transaction information?
A · Touchscreen
ATMs use touchscreens to accept input from users and display information, combining input and output functions in one device.
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Which performance parameter is most critical for a scanner when digitizing high-quality images?
A · Resolution
Resolution determines the detail and quality of the scanned image, making it critical for scanners. Latency and throughput relate more to speed, and bandwidth to data transfer capacity.
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Which performance parameter primarily affects the clarity of images displayed on a computer monitor?
B · Resolution
Resolution defines the number of pixels displayed, directly affecting image clarity. Refresh rate affects flicker, latency affects response time, and data transfer rate affects speed of data movement.
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Which of the following devices is primarily used to capture handwritten input for a computer system?
C · Digitizer
A digitizer is an input device that converts analog information such as handwritten input into digital data.
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Which input device uses a grid of light beams to detect the position of an object placed on its surface?
A · Touch Screen
A touch screen uses a grid of light beams or capacitive sensing to detect the position of a finger or stylus on the screen.
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Which of the following input devices is best suited for scanning and converting printed text into digital format?
B · Scanner
A scanner is designed to capture images or text from printed material and convert them into digital data.
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Which output device is commonly used to produce high-quality photographic prints from digital images?
B · Inkjet Printer
Inkjet printers are widely used for producing high-quality photographic prints due to their ability to blend colors smoothly.
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Which output device converts digital signals into audible sound for the user?
B · Speaker
Speakers convert digital audio signals into sound waves that can be heard by the user.
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Which output device is most suitable for creating large-scale engineering drawings with precise line work?
B · Plotter
Plotters are specialized output devices used for producing large-scale, high-precision line drawings such as engineering blueprints.
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Which characteristic of I/O devices determines how fast data can be transferred between the device and the CPU?
B · Throughput
Throughput refers to the rate at which data is transferred between the I/O device and the CPU, indicating device speed.
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Which function is NOT typically associated with I/O devices in a computer system?
B · Data storage
Data storage is primarily handled by storage devices, not I/O devices which focus on data input and output functions.
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Refer to the diagram below showing an I/O device interface.
Which component is responsible for buffering data between the CPU and the I/O device?
D · Buffer Register
The Buffer Register temporarily holds data being transferred between the CPU and the I/O device to accommodate speed differences.
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Which interface standard is commonly used to connect external I/O devices such as keyboards and mice to a computer system?
B · USB
USB (Universal Serial Bus) is the most common interface standard for connecting external I/O devices like keyboards and mice.
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Which connectivity method allows multiple I/O devices to share a single communication channel using time division?
B · Multiplexing
Multiplexing allows multiple devices to share a communication channel by dividing access into time slots.
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Refer to the diagram below showing a typical I/O connectivity schematic.
Which component acts as the intermediary between the CPU and multiple I/O devices?
A · I/O Controller
The I/O Controller manages communication and control signals between the CPU and multiple I/O devices.
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Which data transfer mode involves the CPU actively waiting and checking the status of an I/O device before transferring data?
A · Programmed I/O
Programmed I/O requires the CPU to continuously poll the device status, leading to busy waiting.
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In which data transfer mode does the CPU get interrupted only when the I/O device is ready for data transfer, allowing the CPU to perform other tasks meanwhile?
B · Interrupt-driven I/O
Interrupt-driven I/O allows the CPU to execute other instructions and get interrupted only when the device needs attention.
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Refer to the flowchart below illustrating a data transfer process.
Which data transfer mode does this flowchart most likely represent?
C · DMA
The flowchart shows the DMA controller autonomously transferring data between memory and device without CPU intervention, characteristic of DMA mode.
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Which performance metric is used to evaluate the average time taken by an I/O device to start data transfer after receiving a request?
A · Latency
Latency refers to the delay between the request and the start of data transfer in I/O devices.
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Which of the following is a limitation of I/O devices that affects overall system performance?
B · I/O device latency
I/O device latency can cause delays in data transfer, limiting system performance despite CPU speed or memory size.
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Which performance metric measures the maximum amount of data an I/O device can transfer per unit time?
B · Throughput
Throughput measures the maximum data transfer rate of an I/O device, indicating its capacity.
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Which of the following is an example of an I/O device used in barcode scanning applications?
B · Barcode Reader
Barcode readers are specialized input devices used to scan and decode barcodes in retail and inventory systems.
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Which I/O device is commonly used in gaming systems to provide user input through directional control?
A · Joystick
A joystick is an input device used in gaming to control movement and direction.
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Which of the following is NOT a type of storage device?
D · Central Processing Unit (CPU)
CPU is a processing unit, not a storage device. HDD, RAM, and Optical Disc are all types of storage devices.
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Which storage device is primarily used for temporary data storage during program execution?
C · Random Access Memory
RAM is used for temporary data storage during program execution, whereas HDD, SSD, and Optical Discs are used for permanent or secondary storage.
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Which of the following storage devices offers the fastest data access speed?
B · Solid State Drive
Solid State Drives (SSD) provide faster data access speeds compared to magnetic tape, optical discs, and traditional hard disk drives.
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Which of the following is a characteristic of primary storage?
B · Volatile and fast access
Primary storage (like RAM) is volatile and provides fast access to data, unlike secondary storage which is non-volatile and larger but slower.
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Which of the following correctly differentiates primary storage from secondary storage?
B · Primary storage is volatile and faster; secondary storage is non-volatile and slower
Primary storage like RAM is volatile and faster, while secondary storage like HDD or SSD is non-volatile and slower.
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Which of the following is NOT a typical example of secondary storage?
C · Random Access Memory
RAM is primary storage and volatile, whereas HDD, Optical Disc, and SSD are examples of secondary storage devices.
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Refer to the diagram below showing the storage hierarchy. Which level typically has the highest speed but lowest capacity?
A · Cache Memory
Cache memory is at the top of the storage hierarchy with the highest speed but smallest capacity compared to RAM, HDD, and magnetic tape.
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Which of the following statements about storage hierarchy is TRUE?
A · Higher levels have larger capacity and slower speed
In storage hierarchy, higher levels (like magnetic tape) have larger capacity but slower speed, while lower levels (like cache) have smaller capacity but faster speed.
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In the storage hierarchy, which characteristic generally increases as you move from primary to tertiary storage?
C · Storage capacity
Storage capacity generally increases as you move down the hierarchy from primary to tertiary storage, while access speed and cost per bit decrease.
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Which magnetic storage technology uses a spinning disk coated with magnetic material to store data?
A · Hard Disk Drive
Hard Disk Drives use spinning disks coated with magnetic material to store data magnetically.
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Which of the following is an advantage of magnetic tape over hard disk drives?
B · Higher durability for archival storage
Magnetic tape is more durable and cost-effective for long-term archival storage but has slower access times compared to hard disk drives.
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Which optical storage technology uses a laser to read data from pits and lands on a disc surface?
A · CD-ROM
CD-ROM uses laser technology to read data from pits and lands on the disc surface, unlike floppy disks or HDDs.
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Which of the following correctly describes a key difference between CD-ROM and DVD storage technologies?
B · DVDs have higher capacity due to smaller pit size and multiple layers
DVDs have higher capacity than CD-ROMs because they use smaller pits and can have multiple layers, allowing more data storage.
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Which of the following is a characteristic of solid state drives (SSD) compared to hard disk drives (HDD)?
B · Has no moving parts and faster access times
SSDs have no moving parts and provide faster access times than HDDs, which use spinning magnetic disks.
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Which of the following is a limitation of SSDs compared to HDDs?
C · Limited write endurance
SSDs have limited write endurance due to the nature of flash memory cells, unlike HDDs which have mechanical parts that can fail.
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Refer to the performance comparison chart below showing speed, capacity, and latency of different storage devices. Which device shows the lowest latency?
B · Solid State Drive
Solid State Drives have the lowest latency compared to HDDs, Optical Discs, and Magnetic Tape as shown in the chart.
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Which of the following storage performance metrics is most critical for applications requiring quick data retrieval?
B · Latency
Latency measures the delay before data transfer begins, making it critical for quick data retrieval applications.
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Which interface is commonly used to connect solid state drives to a computer motherboard for high-speed data transfer?
C · PCI Express (PCIe)
PCI Express (PCIe) interface is commonly used for NVMe SSDs to achieve high-speed data transfer, faster than SATA or PATA.
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Which of the following storage interfaces provides the highest bandwidth for data transfer in modern computers?
C · PCIe NVMe
PCIe NVMe SSDs provide the highest bandwidth compared to SATA III, USB 3.0, and FireWire interfaces.
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Which data access method reads data in a fixed, linear order from start to finish?
B · Sequential access
Sequential access reads data in a fixed linear order, unlike random access which can read data at any location.
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Which emerging storage technology uses 3D XPoint memory to offer non-volatile storage with performance close to RAM?
C · Intel Optane
Intel Optane technology uses 3D XPoint memory to provide non-volatile storage with performance near that of RAM.
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Which of the following emerging storage technologies is considered a potential replacement for flash memory due to its high speed and endurance but is still under research and development?
B · Phase Change Memory (PCM)
Phase Change Memory (PCM) offers high speed and endurance and is considered a promising replacement for flash memory but is still emerging.
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Which of the following best describes the primary function of a motherboard in a computer system?
B · To connect and allow communication between all hardware components
The motherboard acts as the main circuit board that connects all hardware components and allows them to communicate with each other.
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Which component on the motherboard is responsible for controlling communication between the CPU, memory, and peripherals?
B · Chipset
The chipset manages data flow between the CPU, memory, and peripheral devices on the motherboard.
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Which of the following is NOT a function of the motherboard?
C · Storing user files permanently
The motherboard does not store user files; storage devices like HDDs or SSDs handle permanent data storage.
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Refer to the diagram below showing a CPU socket and chipset block diagram. Which part of the chipset primarily handles communication with high-speed PCIe devices?
A · Northbridge
The Northbridge chipset manages communication between the CPU, RAM, and high-speed devices like PCIe graphics cards.
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Which CPU socket type is commonly used for Intel's latest desktop processors?
C · LGA 1700
LGA 1700 is the socket type used for Intel's 12th and 13th generation desktop processors.
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Which of the following statements about chipsets is TRUE?
D · Northbridge connects the CPU to memory and graphics interfaces.
The Northbridge chipset connects the CPU to memory and graphics interfaces, while the Southbridge handles I/O ports.
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What is the primary difference between RAM and ROM memory slots on a motherboard?
B · RAM is volatile memory; ROM is non-volatile memory
RAM is volatile memory used for temporary data storage during operation, while ROM is non-volatile and stores firmware.
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Which type of RAM slot is most commonly found on modern motherboards?
A · DIMM
DIMM (Dual Inline Memory Module) slots are standard for desktop RAM modules on modern motherboards.
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Which of the following memory types is typically used to store the BIOS firmware on a motherboard?
C · Flash ROM
Flash ROM is used to store BIOS firmware because it is non-volatile and can be updated.
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Refer to the diagram below showing expansion slots on a motherboard. Which slot provides the highest data transfer rate for modern graphics cards?
C · PCIe x16
PCIe x16 slots provide the highest bandwidth and are used for modern graphics cards.
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Which expansion slot type was specifically designed to improve graphics performance before PCIe became standard?
B · AGP
AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port) was designed for graphics cards before PCIe replaced it.
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Which power connector on the motherboard supplies power directly to the CPU?
B · 4/8-pin EPS 12V connector
The 4 or 8-pin EPS 12V connector supplies dedicated power to the CPU.
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Which component on the motherboard is responsible for stabilizing and regulating voltage supplied to various components?
A · Voltage Regulator Module (VRM)
The VRM converts and regulates voltage to ensure components receive stable power.
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Refer to the diagram below showing common input/output ports on a motherboard. Which port is typically used for connecting external monitors?
B · HDMI
HDMI ports are used to connect external monitors and display devices.
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Which of the following ports is primarily used for wired network connections on a motherboard?
C · Ethernet (RJ45)
Ethernet (RJ45) ports are used for wired network connectivity.
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Which onboard component is responsible for converting digital audio signals to analog for speaker output?
B · Onboard Audio Codec
The onboard audio codec converts digital audio signals to analog for output devices like speakers.
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Which onboard component typically handles wired internet connectivity without requiring an additional expansion card?
B · Onboard Network Interface Card (NIC)
The onboard NIC provides built-in wired network connectivity on the motherboard.
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Which motherboard form factor is the largest and typically used in high-end desktops and servers?
C · ATX
ATX is the largest common form factor used in desktops and servers, allowing more expansion slots and features.
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Refer to the motherboard layout diagram below. Which area is typically reserved for memory slots?
A · Area A near the CPU socket
Memory slots (RAM) are usually located close to the CPU socket for faster communication.
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Which of the following best describes the primary function of a motherboard in a computer system?
B · To connect and allow communication between all hardware components
The motherboard acts as the main circuit board that connects all hardware components, enabling communication and coordination between them.
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Which component on the motherboard is responsible for holding and connecting the CPU to the rest of the system?
B · CPU socket
The CPU socket is the physical interface on the motherboard that holds the CPU and connects it electrically to the rest of the system.
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Refer to the diagram below showing a motherboard block layout. Which of the following components is typically responsible for managing data flow between the CPU, memory, and peripherals?
A · Northbridge chipset
The Northbridge chipset manages high-speed communication between the CPU, memory, and graphics controllers, while the Southbridge handles lower-speed peripherals.
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Which of the following memory types is most commonly used in modern motherboards for main system memory?
A · DDR4 SDRAM
DDR4 SDRAM is the standard dynamic RAM type used in most modern systems for main memory due to its speed and efficiency.
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Which type of expansion slot on a motherboard provides the highest data transfer rate for graphics cards as of current standards?
B · PCIe x16
PCI Express (PCIe) x16 slots offer the highest bandwidth and are typically used for graphics cards, surpassing older standards like PCI and AGP.
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Refer to the pin configuration diagram below of a 24-pin ATX power connector. Which voltage is NOT supplied by this connector?
D · -5V
The 24-pin ATX power connector supplies +3.3V, +5V, and +12V rails, but the -5V rail is obsolete and not provided in modern ATX connectors.
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Which of the following ports is typically used for high-speed external data transfer and supports hot-plugging on modern motherboards?
B · USB port
USB ports support high-speed data transfer and hot-plugging, making them the most common interface for external devices.
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Refer to the diagram below showing various I/O ports on a motherboard rear panel. Which port is used primarily for connecting analog video displays?
C · VGA
VGA ports transmit analog video signals and are used for connecting older analog monitors.
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What is the primary purpose of the CMOS battery on a motherboard?
B · To maintain BIOS/UEFI settings and system clock when the system is powered off
The CMOS battery supplies power to the CMOS chip which stores BIOS/UEFI settings and the real-time clock when the computer is off.
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Which firmware interface replaced the traditional BIOS to provide faster boot times and enhanced security features on modern motherboards?
A · UEFI
UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) is the modern replacement for BIOS, offering improved boot speed, larger drive support, and better security.
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Which of the following memory slot types is designed to support dual in-line memory modules (DIMMs) with 288 pins commonly used in desktop computers?
B · DDR4 DIMM
DDR4 DIMMs with 288 pins are standard memory modules used in desktops, while SO-DIMMs are smaller and used in laptops.
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Refer to the schematic below of a CPU socket and chipset connection. Which chipset component is primarily responsible for controlling communication with slower peripheral devices?
B · Southbridge
The Southbridge chipset manages communication with slower peripherals such as USB, SATA, and audio devices.
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Which voltage regulation component on the motherboard ensures the CPU receives stable voltage despite fluctuations in power supply?
B · Voltage Regulator Module (VRM)
The VRM converts and regulates voltage to provide a stable and appropriate power level to the CPU.
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Which expansion slot type supports serial communication lanes and is commonly used for modern graphics cards and SSDs?
B · PCIe
PCI Express (PCIe) uses serial lanes for high-speed communication and is the standard for modern expansion cards.
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Which of the following is the primary function of a Network Interface Card (NIC)?
A · To connect a computer to a network
A NIC enables a computer to connect and communicate over a network by providing the hardware interface.
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Which type of NIC supports both wired and wireless connections?
C · Combo NIC
Combo NICs support both wired (Ethernet) and wireless (Wi-Fi) connections, allowing flexible network access.
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Which of the following standards is commonly used for wired NICs operating at 1 Gbps speed?
C · 1000BASE-T
1000BASE-T is the IEEE standard for Gigabit Ethernet over twisted pair cables, commonly used in wired NICs.
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Which component inside a NIC is responsible for converting data into electrical signals for transmission over the network?
A · Transceiver
The transceiver converts digital data from the computer into electrical signals suitable for transmission over the network medium.
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Which of the following is the most advanced feature found in modern NICs to improve network performance?
C · Checksum offloading
Checksum offloading allows the NIC to compute checksums, reducing CPU load and improving network performance.
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Which device operates at the physical layer and broadcasts incoming data packets to all connected devices?
B · Hub
A hub operates at the physical layer and broadcasts data to all ports, unlike a switch which forwards data selectively.
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Which of the following correctly differentiates a switch from a hub?
A · Switches operate at Layer 2, hubs at Layer 1
Switches operate at the data link layer (Layer 2) and forward data based on MAC addresses, while hubs operate at the physical layer (Layer 1) and broadcast data.
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Refer to the diagram below showing a network with hubs and switches. Which device will reduce collision domains in the network?
B · Switch
Switches reduce collision domains by creating separate segments for each port, unlike hubs which share a single collision domain.
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Which switching method stores the entire frame before forwarding it to the destination port?
B · Store-and-forward switching
Store-and-forward switching buffers the entire frame and performs error checking before forwarding, reducing errors.
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Which of the following is NOT a function of a router?
B · Assigning IP addresses dynamically
Assigning IP addresses dynamically is typically done by a DHCP server, not by the router itself (unless it has DHCP functionality).
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Which routing protocol is considered a distance-vector protocol?
B · RIP
RIP (Routing Information Protocol) is a distance-vector routing protocol that uses hop count as a routing metric.
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Refer to the diagram below showing a router connecting three networks. Which interface will the router use to forward a packet destined for IP address 192.168.2.15?
B · Interface 2 (192.168.2.1)
The IP address 192.168.2.15 belongs to the network 192.168.2.0/24, which is connected to Interface 2.
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Which routing algorithm uses link-state information to build a complete topology map of the network?
B · Link-state routing
Link-state routing protocols like OSPF build a complete network topology by sharing link-state information with all routers.
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Which of the following best describes the function of a modem?
B · Converts digital signals to analog and vice versa
A modem modulates digital signals into analog signals for transmission over telephone lines and demodulates incoming analog signals back to digital.
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Which type of modem is used to connect to the internet via telephone lines?
A · DSL modem
DSL modems use telephone lines to provide internet access by modulating digital signals into frequencies suitable for phone lines.
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Refer to the diagram below showing a modem's internal block diagram. Which block is responsible for converting analog signals to digital signals?
B · Demodulator
The demodulator converts incoming analog signals back into digital form for the computer to process.
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Which of the following devices regenerates and amplifies signals to extend the transmission distance in a network?
B · Repeater
A repeater operates at the physical layer to regenerate and amplify signals, allowing them to travel longer distances without degradation.
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Which device connects two separate LAN segments and filters traffic based on MAC addresses?
B · Bridge
A bridge connects two LAN segments and uses MAC addresses to filter and forward traffic only when necessary.
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Which of the following statements about repeaters and bridges is correct?
C · Repeaters amplify signals, bridges filter traffic based on MAC addresses
Repeaters amplify and regenerate signals at the physical layer, while bridges filter traffic based on MAC addresses at the data link layer.
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Refer to the diagram below showing two LAN segments connected by a bridge. Which frames will the bridge forward from LAN 1 to LAN 2?
B · Only frames with destination MAC addresses in LAN 2
The bridge forwards frames only if the destination MAC address belongs to the other LAN segment, reducing unnecessary traffic.
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Which type of cable uses light pulses to transmit data over long distances with minimal interference?
C · Fiber optic cable
Fiber optic cables use light pulses to transmit data, allowing high-speed communication over long distances with low signal loss.
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Which connector type is commonly used with twisted pair Ethernet cables?
A · RJ-45
RJ-45 connectors are used with twisted pair cables for Ethernet networking.
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Which cable type is most susceptible to electromagnetic interference (EMI)?
C · Unshielded twisted pair cable
Unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cables lack shielding and are more vulnerable to EMI compared to shielded cables or fiber optics.
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Refer to the cabling layout diagram below. Which cable is best suited for connecting devices over a distance of 500 meters with minimal signal loss?
C · Fiber optic cable
Fiber optic cables support long-distance transmission (hundreds of meters to kilometers) with minimal signal degradation.
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Which of the following wireless standards operates in the 5 GHz frequency band and supports data rates up to several Gbps?
C · 802.11ac
802.11ac operates in the 5 GHz band and supports high data rates, making it suitable for modern high-speed wireless networks.
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Which wireless device connects multiple wireless clients to a wired network?
B · Wireless access point
A wireless access point connects wireless clients to a wired LAN, acting as a bridge between wireless and wired networks.
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Which wireless security protocol provides the strongest encryption for Wi-Fi networks?
D · WPA3
WPA3 is the latest Wi-Fi security protocol providing stronger encryption and improved protection against attacks.
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Refer to the diagram below showing a wireless network setup. Which device is responsible for extending the wireless coverage area?
B · Wireless repeater
A wireless repeater receives and retransmits wireless signals to extend the coverage area of the network.
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Which factor does NOT affect the performance of network hardware?
C · Color of the device casing
The color of the device casing has no impact on network hardware performance; bandwidth, latency, and error rate are key factors.
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Which IEEE standard defines Gigabit Ethernet over copper twisted pair cables?
A · 802.3ab
IEEE 802.3ab specifies Gigabit Ethernet over 1000BASE-T twisted pair copper cables.
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Refer to the network performance graph below showing throughput vs. latency for two devices. Which device is more suitable for real-time applications?
B · Device B with moderate throughput and low latency
Real-time applications require low latency for responsiveness; moderate throughput with low latency is preferable.
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Which of the following is a key characteristic of the IEEE 802.3 Ethernet standard?
C · Defines wired LAN protocols using CSMA/CD
IEEE 802.3 defines wired Ethernet LAN protocols using Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD).
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Which technology improves wireless network performance by using multiple antennas for transmission and reception?
A · MIMO
MIMO (Multiple Input Multiple Output) uses multiple antennas to increase throughput and reliability in wireless networks.
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Which of the following cable types is shown in the diagram below, characterized by a central conductor surrounded by insulation and a metallic shield?
B · Coaxial cable
Coaxial cables have a central conductor, insulating layer, metallic shield, and outer jacket, as shown in the diagram.
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Which of the following is the primary function of a Network Interface Card (NIC)?
B · To connect a computer to a network and handle data link layer communication
A NIC connects a computer to a network and manages data link layer communication, enabling the device to send and receive data on the network.
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Which type of NIC supports both wired and wireless connections?
C · Combo NIC
Combo NICs support both wired (Ethernet) and wireless connections, allowing flexible network connectivity.
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How does a NIC use MAC addresses in network communication?
B · To uniquely identify devices on the same local network segment
NICs use MAC addresses to uniquely identify devices on the same local network segment for proper data delivery at the data link layer.
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Which of the following is NOT a feature of modern NICs?
C · Routing packets between different networks
Routing packets between different networks is the function of routers, not NICs. NICs operate at the data link layer within a single network segment.
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A computer's NIC supports 1 Gbps full-duplex communication. What is the maximum theoretical throughput achievable?
C · 2 Gbps
Full-duplex communication allows simultaneous sending and receiving, so maximum throughput is 1 Gbps in each direction, totaling 2 Gbps.
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Which device operates at the physical layer and simply broadcasts incoming signals to all ports?
B · Hub
A hub operates at the physical layer and broadcasts incoming signals to all connected ports without filtering or routing.
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What is the main difference between a switch and a hub?
B · Switches forward data only to the destination port, hubs broadcast to all ports
Switches forward data frames only to the port associated with the destination MAC address, while hubs broadcast incoming signals to all ports.
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Refer to the diagram below showing a network with a hub and a switch connecting four computers. Which device reduces network collisions and why?
B · Switch, because it creates separate collision domains per port
Switches reduce collisions by creating separate collision domains for each port, allowing simultaneous communication without interference.
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Which switching method reduces latency by forwarding frames as soon as the destination address is read?
B · Cut-through switching
Cut-through switching forwards frames immediately after reading the destination address, reducing latency compared to store-and-forward.
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In which scenario is using a hub more appropriate than a switch?
B · For a small network where cost is a major constraint
Hubs are cheaper and simpler devices suitable for very small networks where cost is more important than performance or security.
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Which device is responsible for determining the best path for data packets across multiple networks?
B · Router
Routers operate at the network layer and determine the best path for forwarding data packets between different networks.
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Which routing protocol is commonly used for exchanging routing information within an autonomous system?
B · OSPF (Open Shortest Path First)
OSPF is an interior gateway protocol used for exchanging routing information within an autonomous system.
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Refer to the diagram below showing a router connecting three networks. Which interface should the router use to forward a packet destined for 192.168.2.10?
B · Interface 2 (192.168.2.1)
Packets destined for 192.168.2.10 belong to the network connected to Interface 2 (192.168.2.1), so the router forwards the packet via that interface.
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Which of the following is a key difference between a router and a switch?
B · Routers forward packets based on IP addresses, switches based on MAC addresses
Routers use IP addresses to forward packets between networks, while switches use MAC addresses to forward frames within a LAN.
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In a network with multiple routers, which device is responsible for resolving IP address conflicts and assigning IP addresses dynamically?
C · DHCP Server
A DHCP server assigns IP addresses dynamically and resolves conflicts; routers may forward DHCP requests but do not assign addresses themselves.
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Which device modulates and demodulates signals for data transmission over telephone lines?
C · Modem
A modem converts digital data into analog signals for transmission over telephone lines and demodulates incoming analog signals back into digital data.
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Which type of modem is used to connect a home network to the internet via cable TV infrastructure?
B · Cable Modem
Cable modems provide internet access by modulating and demodulating signals over cable TV lines.
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Which of the following best describes the difference between a DSL modem and a cable modem?
A · DSL modems use telephone lines, cable modems use coaxial cables
DSL modems use existing telephone lines for data transmission, while cable modems use coaxial cables from cable TV providers.
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A user complains of slow internet despite a high-speed plan. The modem shows a weak signal strength. Which action is most likely to improve performance?
B · Check and replace the telephone or coaxial cable connecting the modem
Weak signal strength is often due to faulty or poor-quality cables; replacing the cable can improve signal quality and internet speed.
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Which device regenerates and amplifies signals to extend the transmission distance in a network?
B · Repeater
Repeaters operate at the physical layer to regenerate and amplify signals, allowing them to travel longer distances without degradation.
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What is the primary function of a network bridge?
B · To connect two LAN segments and filter traffic based on MAC addresses
A bridge connects two LAN segments and filters traffic by forwarding frames based on MAC addresses to reduce collisions.
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Refer to the diagram below showing two LAN segments connected by a bridge. What is the effect of the bridge on network traffic?
B · It filters traffic and forwards only frames destined for the other LAN
The bridge filters traffic by forwarding only frames destined for devices on the other LAN segment, reducing unnecessary traffic.
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Which of the following is true about repeaters and bridges?
C · Repeaters regenerate signals, bridges filter traffic based on MAC addresses
Repeaters regenerate and amplify signals at the physical layer, while bridges filter traffic based on MAC addresses at the data link layer.
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In a network experiencing frequent collisions, which device would best help reduce collisions by segmenting the network?
B · Bridge
A bridge segments the network into separate collision domains, reducing collisions by filtering traffic between segments.
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Which device provides wireless connectivity to wired networks by acting as a bridge between wireless clients and the wired LAN?
B · Wireless Access Point (WAP)
A Wireless Access Point (WAP) connects wireless devices to a wired network, bridging wireless and wired segments.
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Which wireless standard is commonly supported by modern WAPs for high-speed connectivity in the 5 GHz band?
D · 802.11ac
802.11ac supports high-speed wireless connectivity primarily in the 5 GHz band and is widely supported by modern WAPs.
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Refer to the diagram below of a wireless network with multiple WAPs. Which feature allows seamless roaming between WAPs without losing connection?
C · Fast roaming (802.11r)
Fast roaming (802.11r) enables clients to quickly switch between WAPs within the same network without connection drops.
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Which security protocol is considered most secure for wireless access points?
C · WPA2
WPA2 provides strong encryption and security for wireless networks and is currently the most widely recommended protocol.
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A company wants to extend wireless coverage in a large office using multiple WAPs. Which configuration is essential to avoid interference?
B · Use non-overlapping channels for adjacent WAPs
Using non-overlapping channels for adjacent WAPs minimizes interference and improves wireless performance.
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Which type of cable is most commonly used for Ethernet LAN connections up to 100 meters?
C · Twisted pair cable (Cat5e or Cat6)
Twisted pair cables such as Cat5e and Cat6 are commonly used for Ethernet LAN connections up to 100 meters.
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Which connector type is typically used with twisted pair Ethernet cables?
A · RJ-45
RJ-45 connectors are used with twisted pair Ethernet cables for LAN connections.
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Which cable type provides the highest immunity to electromagnetic interference (EMI)?
D · Fiber optic cable
Fiber optic cables use light signals and are immune to electromagnetic interference, making them ideal for high EMI environments.
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Refer to the cabling layout diagram below. Which cable type is best suited for the link labeled 'A' connecting two buildings 500 meters apart?
C · Single-mode fiber optic cable
Single-mode fiber optic cable supports long-distance communication over hundreds of meters without signal degradation.
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Which of the following connectors is used with fiber optic cables?
C · SC
SC (Subscriber Connector) is a common connector type used with fiber optic cables.
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Which network hardware performance metric measures the percentage of time the device is successfully transmitting data without errors?
D · Availability
Availability measures the percentage of time a device is operational and successfully transmitting data without errors.
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Which metric indicates the time taken for a data packet to travel from source to destination?
B · Latency
Latency is the delay time for a data packet to travel from source to destination.
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Which of the following best describes throughput in network hardware performance?
B · Actual data transfer rate achieved over the network
Throughput is the actual data transfer rate achieved, which may be less than the maximum supported bandwidth due to network conditions.
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Refer to the signal flow diagram below showing packet transmission with latency and jitter. Which metric quantifies the variation in packet delay?
B · Jitter
Jitter measures the variation in packet delay over time, affecting real-time applications like VoIP.
