Quick recall · 265 cards
Short MCQ-style retrieval prompts. Tap a card to reveal the answer.
PYQ
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Which State did not send deputies to the Constitutional Convention?
B · Rhode Island and Providence Plantations
PYQ
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Who presided over the Constitutional Convention?
B · George Washington
PYQ
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Congress does NOT have which of the following powers under the U.S. Constitution's structure of separated powers?
B · General police powers
PYQ · 2022
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Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To introduce Money Bills
3. To impeach the President
D · II and III only
PYQ · 2020
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Who among the following Vice-Presidents of India resigned from his office in 1969?
A · V.V. Giri
PYQ · 2021
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The President of India can be impeached by:
A · Parliament
PYQ · 2022
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The Vice-President of India is elected by:
A · Members of both Houses of Parliament
PYQ · 2019
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The oath of office to the Vice-President of India is administered by:
A · President
As per Article 69, the President administers the oath to the Vice-President. This symbolizes the position's importance as ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha. Other options do not perform this duty[3].
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In which year was the first cabinet of independent India formed?
A · 1947
PYQ
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Who allocates portfolios among ministers?
B · Prime Minister
PYQ
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Which amendment limited the size of the Council of Ministers to 15%?
C · 91st
PYQ · 2020
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Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in
B · B. Amending the Constitution
PYQ
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Which House is called the Lower House?
B · B. Lok Sabha
PYQ
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The first sitting of a new Lok Sabha after general elections is called
D · D. First Session
PYQ
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What is the normal term of Lok Sabha?
B · B. 5 years
PYQ
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A Money Bill can be introduced only in
B · B. Lok Sabha
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Which of the following best describes the significance of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
B · It declares the objectives and guiding principles of the Constitution
The Preamble states the objectives and guiding principles such as justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity that the Constitution aims to achieve.
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The Preamble to the Indian Constitution declares India to be a:
A · Democratic Republic
India is described as a Sovereign Democratic Republic in the Preamble, emphasizing people's power and absence of monarchy.
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Which one of the following principles is NOT explicitly mentioned in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
D · Federalism
The Preamble mentions Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic but does not explicitly mention Federalism.
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The Preamble of the Indian Constitution cannot be amended because it is considered:
A · A part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution
The Supreme Court ruled in Kesavananda Bharati that the Basic Structure, including the Preamble, cannot be amended by Parliament.
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Which feature of the Indian Constitution illustrates its federal structure?
B · Division of powers between Union and States
A federal constitution divides powers and responsibilities between the central and state governments.
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In the Indian federal system, which list contains subjects on which only the Union Government can legislate?
A · Union List
The Union List includes subjects like defense, foreign affairs, and atomic energy reserved only for Parliament.
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Which of the following statements best explains the Indian Constitution’s quasi-federal structure?
B · There is a strong central government with powers to override states during emergencies
India's federalism is called quasi-federal because the Union government holds significant powers, especially during emergencies.
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Which of the following lists in the Indian Constitution can both the Union and State Governments legislate on simultaneously?
C · Concurrent List
Concurrent List subjects like education and marriage can be legislated by both Union and States.
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Which article of the Indian Constitution specifically provides for the distribution of legislative powers between Union and States?
A · Article 245
Article 245 defines the extent of laws made by Parliament and State legislatures.
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The doctrine of Separation of Powers in the Indian Constitution aims to:
B · Ensure independence and co-ordination among Executive, Legislature, and Judiciary
Separation of powers ensures a system of checks and balances and prevents abuse of power.
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Who is the head of the Executive in the Indian parliamentary system?
B · Prime Minister
Though the President is the constitutional head, real executive power is exercised by the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers.
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Which of the following is a function of the Legislature in India?
B · Making laws and controlling finances
The Legislature makes laws, authorizes expenditures, and controls the Government through debates and questions.
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Which of the following illustrates the Judiciary’s power under the separation of powers principle?
C · Interpreting the Constitution and laws
The Judiciary interprets laws to ensure they conform to the Constitution and protects Fundamental Rights.
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In the Indian Constitution, the Executive is accountable primarily to:
C · The Parliament
The Executive is responsible to the Legislature, especially the Lok Sabha, under the parliamentary system.
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In India, who appoints the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court?
B · The President
The President appoints the Chief Justice in consultation with senior judges and leaders.
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Which principle distinguishes the Indian parliamentary system from the presidential system?
C · The Executive is responsible to the Legislature
In parliamentary systems, the Executive is accountable to the Legislature, unlike in presidential systems.
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Which of the following countries follows a Presidential system of government?
C · United States of America
The USA has a Presidential system where the President is both head of state and government and elected independently.
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In the Indian parliamentary system, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the:
C · Parliament
Collective responsibility means the entire Council of Ministers is accountable to the Parliament.
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One major difference between the parliamentary and presidential system is:
B · In presidential system, the executive is separate and not accountable to legislature
In presidential systems, the executive is elected separately and is not responsible to the legislature.
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Which feature of Indian government combines aspects of parliamentary and presidential systems?
A · Nominal executive powers of the President
India has a parliamentary system with a President as a nominal executive, resembling some presidential features.
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Which list in the Indian Constitution contains subjects like police and public health?
C · State List
Police and public health are state subjects listed in the State List.
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In case of a conflict between the Union and State laws on subjects in the Concurrent List, which law prevails?
B · Union law prevails
Union law prevails if there is a conflict, unless the State law has Presidential assent.
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Which of the following powers is exclusive to the Union Government under the Indian Constitution?
B · Customs and Excise Duties
Customs and excise duties are under the Union List, for which only Parliament can legislate.
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Which of the following powers is listed under the State List in the Indian Constitution?
C · Marriages and Divorces
Marriages and divorces fall under State List and are legislated by State governments.
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Which Constitutional body is responsible for conducting and supervising elections to Parliament and State Legislatures?
A · Election Commission of India
The Election Commission is an independent Constitutional body overseeing elections.
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The Finance Commission in India is constituted every how many years to recommend financial distributions between Union and States?
A · 5 years
The Finance Commission is constituted every five years as per Article 280.
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Which Constitutional body advises the President on appointments to the higher judiciary?
C · Collegium
The Collegium system, comprising senior judges, recommends appointments to the higher judiciary.
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The Union Public Service Commission is a Constitutional body responsible primarily for:
B · Conducting civil services examinations
The UPSC conducts examinations and advises on recruitment for central services.
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Which of the following is NOT a method by which the Indian Constitution can be amended?
D · Constituent Assembly approval
The Constituent Assembly dissolved after adoption; amendments are done by Parliament with or without state ratification.
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Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to amend the Constitution?
A · Article 368
Article 368 deals with the power to amend the Constitution and the procedure for it.
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Which of the following requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures to amend the Constitution?
A · Amendment affecting Union-State relations
Amendments affecting federal structure require ratification by half the states as per Article 368.
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Which of these is true regarding Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles in the Indian Constitution?
B · Only Fundamental Rights are justiciable in courts
Fundamental Rights are enforceable; Directive Principles guide government policy but are non-justiciable.
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The inclusion of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution primarily serves to:
B · Protect individual liberties against State infringement
Fundamental Rights protect citizens from state action violating their freedoms.
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Which Directive Principle of State Policy aims at securing social justice and economic welfare?
B · Provision of free legal aid
Directive Principles guide the State to provide free legal aid ensuring social justice and fairness.
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The power of Judicial Review in India allows the Supreme Court and High Courts to:
B · Strike down laws inconsistent with the Constitution
Judicial Review empowers courts to invalidate unconstitutional legislation and executive actions.
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Which Article of the Constitution safeguards the independence of the Judiciary by protecting judges' salaries and tenure?
B · Article 50
Article 50 directs separation of judiciary from executive and protects tenure; other articles handle salaries.
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The concept of 'Basic Structure Doctrine', which protects the Constitution's core features from amendment, was established by which Supreme Court judgement?
A · Kesavananda Bharati Case
In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), the Supreme Court held that Parliament cannot alter the Constitution's Basic Structure.
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Which of the following is a feature of the Indian Judiciary that ensures its independence?
B · Security of tenure and protection against arbitrary dismissal
Judicial independence is maintained by safeguards like security of tenure and protection from arbitrary removal.
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Which of the following is NOT a type of Emergency provision in the Indian Constitution?
D · Military Emergency (Article 370)
Article 370 provided special status to Jammu & Kashmir; it does not provide a type of emergency.
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The proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352 impacts which of the following?
A · Suspension of Fundamental Rights except Article 20 and 21
During National Emergency, some Fundamental Rights can be suspended, except protection against double jeopardy and life/freedom.
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During a Financial Emergency declared under Article 360, the Union government may:
A · Directly control the State governments' finances
Article 360 enables the Union to direct States regarding financial matters during emergencies.
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Which emergency provision allows the President to assume control of a State when constitutional machinery fails?
A · Article 356 - President’s Rule
Article 356 allows President's Rule when a state government cannot function according to the Constitution.
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Which of the following best describes the main purpose of the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
B · To declare the objectives and fundamental values of the Constitution
The Preamble sets out the fundamental values and objectives such as justice, liberty, equality and fraternity that guide the Constitution.
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Which term from the Preamble of the Indian Constitution signifies the system where all citizens have equal rights and opportunities?
D · Equality
'Equality' in the Preamble emphasizes equal status and opportunity for all citizens regardless of class, caste, or religion.
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The word 'Socialist' was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by which amendment?
A · 42nd Amendment
The 42nd Amendment of 1976 inserted the term 'Socialist' into the Preamble to emphasize socio-economic justice.
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Which part of the Indian Constitution outlines the fundamental rights of citizens?
A · Part III
Part III of the Constitution specifies Fundamental Rights guaranteed to all citizens.
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Which schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the distribution of powers between Union and States?
B · Schedule VII
Schedule VII contains the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List outlining subjects for each level of government.
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How many parts does the Indian Constitution originally consist of (as adopted in 1950)?
C · 22
The Constitution initially had 22 parts; subsequent amendments have added or modified parts.
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Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian Constitution’s federal structure?
C · Rigid and Unchangeable Constitution
The Indian Constitution is neither completely rigid nor unchangeable; it is partially flexible and amendable.
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Under the Indian Constitution, which list contains subjects on which only the Union Government can legislate?
C · Union List
The Union List enumerates subjects exclusively under Parliament’s legislative competence.
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Which entity has the ultimate legislative authority in case of conflict between Union and State laws on concurrent list subjects?
C · Union Parliament
In concurrent subjects, Union law prevails over conflicting State law unless the State law has presidential assent.
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Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the creation of new states and alteration of existing states’ boundaries?
B · Article 3
Article 3 empowers Parliament to form new states or alter state boundaries after consulting concerned State Assemblies.
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Which of the following legislative powers is exclusive to the State governments under the Indian Constitution?
B · Public Order
'Public Order' is under the State List and is an exclusive state subject.
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When can the Union Government legislate on subjects in the State List under the Indian Constitution?
A · When the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution with two-thirds majority
If Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority, Parliament can legislate on a State List subject temporarily.
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Who appoints the Prime Minister of India in the parliamentary system?
B · President of India
The President appoints the leader of the majority party or coalition in Lok Sabha as Prime Minister.
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Which of the following statements about Collective Responsibility in the Indian Parliamentary System is correct?
B · The Cabinet is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha
The Cabinet as a whole is responsible to Lok Sabha, ensuring government accountability.
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In the Indian parliamentary system, who has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha?
C · President of India
The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha either on advice of the PM or during certain political crises.
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Who is the Head of State and Head of Government respectively under the Indian Constitution?
B · President; Prime Minister
The President is the constitutional Head of State while the Prime Minister is Head of Government.
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Which Constitutional body ensures the independence of the judiciary in India?
D · Judicial Independence guaranteed by the Constitution
Constitutional provisions such as security of tenure, appointment process and salary guarantee ensure judiciary's independence.
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What is the maximum number of judges, including the Chief Justice, that the Supreme Court of India can have as per the current sanctioned strength?
A · 34
The maximum sanctioned strength is 34 judges including the Chief Justice.
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Which of the following courts has jurisdiction over disputes between the Union and States according to the Indian Constitution?
C · Supreme Court
The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in conflicts between Union and State governments.
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Which article provides the procedure for appointment of Supreme Court judges in India?
A · Article 124
Article 124 deals with the constitution and appointment of Supreme Court judges.
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Federalism in the Indian Constitution is best described as:
C · A quasi-federal system with a strong centre controlling states
India has a quasi-federal structure with a strong centre and division of powers defined in the Constitution.
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Which mechanism allows the Indian Union Government to assume control over a State during a constitutional breakdown?
B · Article 356 (President's Rule)
Article 356 allows President's Rule during failure of constitutional machinery in states.
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Which body resolves disputes between the Centre and States in India regarding their powers and functions?
D · Supreme Court
The Supreme Court is the arbiter of disputes between Centre and States as per constitutional provisions.
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Which of the following state reorganization commissions was set up as per constitutional provision to reorganize states on linguistic basis?
B · States Reorganisation Commission (1953)
The States Reorganisation Commission (SRC) of 1953 recommended reorganization of states primarily on linguistic lines.
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Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the amendment procedure and flexibility of the Constitution?
B · Article 368
Article 368 prescribes the procedure for amending the Constitution.
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Which type of amendment requires the ratification of at least half of the State Legislatures?
C · Amendments changing the federal structure or powers of states
Amendments affecting the federal structure, such as distribution of powers, require the consent of at least half of the states.
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Which amendment case introduced the 'basic structure doctrine' limiting Parliament's power to amend the Constitution?
A · Kesavananda Bharati Case
The Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) ruled that Parliament cannot alter the Constitution's basic structure.
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Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals primarily with the allocation of seats in Parliament and State Legislatures?
A · Schedule I
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How many Schedules were originally there in the Indian Constitution at the time of its commencement in 1950?
B · 12
The original Constitution consisted of 12 Schedules; new ones were added later by amendments.
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Which Part of the Constitution deals with the Union and its Territory?
A · Part I
Part I of the Constitution covers the Union and its Territory.
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Which list in the Seventh Schedule contains subjects over which both the Union and States have legislation powers?
C · Concurrent List
The Concurrent List subjects can be legislated upon by both the Union and the States.
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Which part of the Indian Constitution defines the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States?
B · Part XI
Part XI of the Indian Constitution deals with the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States.
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Which of the following lists contains subjects on which only the Parliament can legislate?
A · Union List
The Union List contains subjects on which only the Parliament has exclusive power to make laws.
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Under the Indian Constitution, who has the power to legislate on subjects not enumerated in any of the three lists?
B · Union Parliament
Residuary powers lie with the Union Parliament, allowing it to legislate on subjects not enumerated in the Union, State, or Concurrent Lists.
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Which Article of the Indian Constitution discusses the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States?
A · Article 245
Article 245 deals with the extent of laws made by Parliament and State Legislatures, thus defining distribution of legislative powers.
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In which situation can the Union Parliament legislate on a subject in the State List?
D · All of the above
Under Articles 249, 250, and during National Emergency under 352, Parliament can legislate on State subjects in the stated conditions.
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Which of the following subjects is part of the Union List?
C · Defense
Defense is a subject in the Union List and exclusively legislated by the Parliament.
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The Union List contains how many subjects as per the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution (post 42nd amendment)?
B · 97
Post the 42nd and 44th amendments, the Union List comprises 97 subjects.
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Which Act can Parliament enact in respect of a subject in the Union List even if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority that it is necessary in the national interest?
A · Article 249 Act
Article 249 allows Parliament to legislate on State List subjects if Rajya Sabha passes a two-thirds majority resolution that it is in national interest.
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Which of the following is NOT a subject in the State List?
D · Post Offices and Telegraphs
Post Offices and Telegraphs is a Union List subject, not part of the State List.
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Who has exclusive power to legislate on "Police" as per the Seventh Schedule?
B · State Legislatures
The State List contains 'Police' as an exclusive State subject for legislation.
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Which of the following subjects is found in the State List?
A · Cinematograph
Cinematograph is a State List subject; Defence, Banking and Foreign Affairs are Union List subjects.
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In which of the following cases can the Union Parliament legislate on a State List subject during an emergency?
B · During a National Emergency
Article 250 empowers Parliament to legislate on State List subjects during a National Emergency.
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Which list comprises subjects on which both Union and States can legislate simultaneously?
C · Concurrent List
The Concurrent List contains subjects on which both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate.
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Which of the following subjects is included in the Concurrent List?
D · All of the above
Subjects such as criminal law, marriage and divorce, and education are all part of the Concurrent List.
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Where there is a conflict between Union and State laws on a subject in the Concurrent List, which law prevails?
C · Union law if it has Presidential assent
Union law prevails over State law in Concurrent List subjects if it has received the President's assent.
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Which subject is NOT part of the Concurrent List?
D · Forests
Forests are a State List subject, not part of the Concurrent List.
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Who holds residuary powers to legislate on matters not enumerated in the Union, State, or Concurrent Lists?
B · Union Parliament
Union Parliament holds residuary legislative powers under Article 248 and Entry 97 of the Union List.
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Which Article vests the residuary powers with the Union Parliament?
A · Article 248
Article 248 of the Constitution vests residuary powers on the Union Parliament.
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Which of these is an example of a residuary subject on which only Parliament can legislate?
A · Space exploration
Space exploration is not included in any list and hence falls under residuary powers of Parliament.
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Which Article provides that in case of conflict between Union and State laws on Concurrent List subjects, the Union law prevails if it has Presidential assent?
A · Article 254
Article 254(1) states that the Union law prevails over State law in concurrent subjects if it has the President's assent.
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If a State law on a Concurrent List subject conflicts with a Union law and the Union law does NOT have Presidential assent, which law will prevail?
B · State law
If the Union law lacks Presidential assent, the conflicting State law prevails.
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When can Parliament override a State law on a State List subject under Article 249?
B · When Rajya Sabha passes a 2/3 majority resolution that it is necessary in the national interest
Article 249 allows Parliament to legislate on State List subjects if Rajya Sabha passes a 2/3 majority resolution stating it is necessary in the national interest.
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During President's Rule in a State, who has the legislative powers for the State subjects?
B · Union Parliament
Under Article 356, during President's Rule, Parliament legislates for the State on matters including State List subjects.
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Which Article provides special provisions for certain states like Assam, Nagaland, and Arunachal Pradesh regarding their legislative powers?
A · Article 371
Article 371 contains special provisions for certain States to address their unique needs.
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Which state has special provisions related to its autonomous districts under Article 371(D)?
B · Andhra Pradesh
Andhra Pradesh has special autonomous district council powers under Article 371(D).
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The special provision related to the Governor’s rule in Jammu and Kashmir was provided under which Article before abrogation in 2019?
A · Article 370
Article 370 provided special autonomous status to J&K, including special provisions regarding governance.
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Which of the following is covered under special provisions for the States as per the Constitution?
D · All of the above
Special provisions include autonomous tribal areas, fiscal privileges, and Governor’s powers.
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During a National Emergency, which Article empowers Parliament to legislate on subjects in the State List?
C · Article 250
Article 250 empowers Parliament to legislate on State List subjects during National Emergency.
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Which emergency allows Parliament to overrule State legislatures even if they have not been dissolved?
A · Financial Emergency
During Financial Emergency (Article 360), Parliament has overriding powers on financial matters of States.
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Under which Article can the President assume to himself all legislative powers of a State during President's Rule?
A · Article 356
Article 356 allows the President to take over such legislative powers during failure of constitutional machinery in a State.
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Which of the following emergency provisions can directly impact State legislative powers by suspending the State Assembly?
B · Article 356 (President’s Rule)
During President’s Rule (Article 356), the State Assembly can be suspended or dissolved, impacting State legislative powers.
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Which list in the Indian Constitution exclusively empowers the Union Parliament to legislate on subjects?
A · Union List
The Union List contains subjects on which only the Union Parliament can legislate as per the Indian Constitution.
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Which of the following subjects is generally included in the State List of the Indian Constitution?
A · Police
Police is a subject under the State List, meaning it is primarily under state legislative jurisdiction.
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The subject of 'Marriage and Divorce' falls under which legislative list in India?
C · Concurrent List
Marriage and Divorce are included in the Concurrent List, where both the Union and State Legislatures can legislate.
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Which article of the Indian Constitution provides residuary powers to the Union Parliament?
A · Article 248
Article 248 gives the Union Parliament the residuary powers to legislate on subjects not enumerated in any of the three lists.
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Which of the following is a function of the Inter-state Council set up under Article 263?
A · Resolving disputes between states
The Inter-state Council is constituted to discuss and recommend measures for better coordination between states and the Union and to resolve disputes.
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Which of the following grants is specifically designed to support state schemes and projects in India?
A · Plan Grants
Plan Grants are given by the Union government to states for implementing development plans and schemes.
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During a state emergency under Article 356, who has the authority to proclaim President's Rule in a state?
A · The President of India
Article 356 allows the President to proclaim President's Rule in a state if the constitutional machinery fails in that state.
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Which list contains subjects on which both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate?
A · Concurrent List
The Concurrent List consists of subjects where both the Parliament and the State Legislatures have the power to legislate.
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Which mechanism is primarily used to resolve conflicts between Union and State laws on concurrent subjects if they differ?
A · Union law prevails if made after State law
If there is a conflict between Union and State laws on a concurrent subject, the Union law prevails provided it is made after the State law.
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Which of the following states has special provisions under the Indian Constitution relating to its governance and autonomy?
A · Jammu and Kashmir
Jammu and Kashmir had special provisions under Article 370 (now abrogated) and Article 35A regarding its governance and autonomy.
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Which of these powers is NOT part of the State List according to the Indian Constitution?
C · Defence
Defence is a subject in the Union List and is outside the jurisdiction of the State List.
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Which article empowers the President to dissolve a State Legislative Assembly under certain conditions?
A · Article 356
Article 356 authorizes the President to impose President's Rule and dissolve the State Legislative Assembly if necessary.
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Which of the following taxes is exclusively collected by the Union government in India?
A · Customs Duty
Customs Duty is exclusively under the Union List and collected by the Union government.
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Which of the following is a residuary power exercised by the Union Parliament in India?
A · Legislation on cybercrime
Cybercrime does not fall under Union, State, or Concurrent lists, hence it is a residuary subject under Union Parliament's jurisdiction.
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The Inter-state Council is chaired by whom as per the constitutional provisions?
A · Prime Minister
The Inter-state Council is chaired by the Prime Minister to facilitate coordination between states and the Union.
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If a state law conflicts with a concurrent list law passed by Parliament after it, what is the legal status of the state law?
A · It becomes void to the extent of the conflict
Union law prevails over state law on concurrent subjects when Parliament enacts law after the respective state law, rendering the state law void to that extent.
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Which financial instrument is a tool for the Union government to collect a share of state revenues?
A · Tax Devolution
Tax devolution refers to the share of taxes collected by the Union that is transferred to state governments.
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Which of the following is NOT a special provision available for certain states in India?
B · Total exemption from taxes
No state gets total exemption from taxes as a special provision; such blanket exemptions do not exist.
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Which of the following lists includes the power to make laws on 'Trade and Commerce within the State'?
A · State List
Trade and commerce within a state fall under the State List and thus are legislated by the state assembly.
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Which power does the President of India NOT have during the imposition of President’s Rule in a state?
C · Appointing the Governor
Appointment of the Governor is done by the President at all times, not specifically during President's Rule; thus, it is not a special power exercised during emergencies.
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In case of financial disputes between Union and States, which of the following forums is NOT a recommended mechanism for resolution?
D · State High Courts
State High Courts do not have jurisdiction over Union-State financial disputes; such issues are generally handled by the Finance Commission, Inter-state Council, or Supreme Court.
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Which of the following is an example of a residuary subject where only the Union Parliament can legislate?
A · Intellectual Property Rights
Intellectual Property Rights is not mentioned in any of the three lists, hence it is a residuary subject under the exclusive jurisdiction of Parliament.
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Which among the following is NOT a function of the Inter-state Council in India?
C · Wielding legislative power over states
The Inter-state Council does not have legislative powers; it only advises and facilitates coordination.
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During President’s Rule in a state, which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the legislative powers of the state legislature?
A · State Legislature is either suspended or dissolved
During President's Rule, the state legislature is either suspended or dissolved, and the Parliament legislates for the state.
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Which is the primary source of revenue for the States in India from the Union government?
A · Tax devolution
Tax devolution involves transferring a share of Union tax revenues to the States and is their primary source of external funds.
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What happens if both Union and State legislatures pass laws on the same subject from the Concurrent List, and there is a conflict, but the state law is older than the Union law?
A · Union law prevails
When both laws conflict, the Union law prevails if made after the state law, regardless of which law was made first.
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Which special provision in the Constitution grants autonomy to Tribal Areas in Northeast India?
A · Sixth Schedule
The Sixth Schedule provides for autonomous district and regional councils in certain tribal areas of Northeast India.
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Which financial institution recommends the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States in India?
A · Finance Commission
The Finance Commission is constituted every five years to recommend revenue sharing and grants between the Union and States.
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Which constitutional article grants the Union Parliament the authority to legislate on subjects not enumerated in either Union, State, or Concurrent Lists?
A · Article 248
Article 248 confers residuary powers to Parliament for subjects not enumerated in any of the specified legislative lists.
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The President’s Rule under Article 356 can initially last for how many months without parliamentary approval in India?
A · Six months
The President’s Rule can be imposed for six months initially and must be approved by Parliament to continue beyond that.
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Which list governs subjects such as defense, foreign affairs, and atomic energy in India?
A · Union List
Subjects like defense, foreign affairs, and atomic energy are exclusively under the Union List.
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Under the Indian Constitution, who appoints the members of the Inter-state Council?
A · The President of India
The President constitutes the Inter-state Council on the advice of the Union government and appoints its members.
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Which of the following would NOT be classified under the Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution?
D · Currency and Coinage
Currency and Coinage belong to the Union List, not Concurrent List.
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Which constitutional provision allows a state to have its own constitution subject to the President's assent?
A · Article 372 (as applicable to Jammu and Kashmir)
Jammu and Kashmir had a special provision (Article 370, now abrogated) allowing it to have its own constitution under Article 372.
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In the context of Indian federalism, which of the following best describes the distribution of powers between Union and States?
A · Union has residuary powers; States have exclusive powers on State List; Concurrent subjects can be legislated by both
The Indian Constitution grants residuary powers to the Union, exclusive powers on the State List to states, and both share Concurrent subjects.
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Which of the following is NOT a power of the President during a State Emergency under Article 356?
C · Dismissal of the Governor
The President cannot dismiss the Governor during State Emergency; the Governor is appointed and holds office at the President's pleasure but not dismissed as a power during emergency.
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Which one of the following is a correct example of financial relations between the Union and States in India?
A · States receive a fixed percentage of Union tax revenue as assigned by Finance Commission
The Finance Commission recommends the percentage share of Union tax revenue which is devolved to the States.
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Which state had special autonomous status that was abrogated in 2019 under Article 370?
A · Jammu and Kashmir
Jammu and Kashmir had special autonomous status under Article 370 which was revoked in 2019.
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Which of these subjects belongs to the Concurrent List, allowing both Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws?
A · Education
Education is a subject under the Concurrent List, meaning both Union and State legislatures can legislate on it.
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During the imposition of President’s Rule in a state, who administers the state’s day-to-day governance?
A · Governor under the President’s direction
The Governor administers the state on behalf of the President during President's Rule.
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Which of the following best explains the effect of Article 254(2) in the case where a State law repugnant to an existing Union law is made with the consent of Parliament?
A · The State law prevails throughout the State despite repugnancy.
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What is the primary constitutional role of the President of India?
C · Head of State and Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces
The President of India is the Head of State and Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces as per the Constitution.
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Which of the following is a constitutional qualification for a person to become the President of India?
A · Must be a citizen of India and at least 35 years old
Article 58 provides that the President must be a citizen of India and at least 35 years old.
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The President of India holds office for a term of:
A · Five years from the date on which he enters his office
The President holds office for five years starting from the day he enters on his office as per Article 56.
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Which statement best describes the President’s role in government functioning?
B · The President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers
The President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister as per Article 74.
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Which of the following is NOT a position held by the President of India?
A · Ex-officio Chairman of the Parliament
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the Chairman of the Lower House of Parliament, not the President.
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Which body elects the President of India?
C · An electoral college consisting of elected members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies
The President is elected by an electoral college comprising elected members of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislatures.
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The system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote is used in the election of the:
A · President of India
The election of the President uses proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote as per Article 54.
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Which of these statements about the President's election is correct?
C · The election is conducted by the Chief Election Commissioner
The Chief Election Commissioner conducts the Presidential elections under the powers delegated by the Election Commission of India.
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Why is the value of votes of MLAs in the Presidential election different for different states?
A · It is proportional to the population of the state
The value of votes of MLAs is proportional to the population of the respective state as per Article 55.
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The President of India has the power to issue ordinances under which condition?
B · When Parliament is in recess and immediate legislative action is required
The President can promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session and immediate action is necessary, under Article 123.
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Which of the following is a discretionary power of the President of India?
C · Appointing the Prime Minister when no clear majority emerges
The discretionary power includes appointing a Prime Minister when no party has a clear majority in Lok Sabha.
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Which power allows the President to check the legislature by withholding assent to a bill?
B · Absolute veto
The President can withhold assent permanently—a power known as the absolute veto.
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To which of the following does the President give assent under the "suspensive veto"?
A · When the bill is returned once for reconsideration and passed again
Suspensive veto means the President returns the bill once for reconsideration; if passed again, assent must be given.
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The pardoning power of the President under Article 72 does NOT include:
C · Returning a bill passed by Parliament
Returning a bill is related to legislative powers, not pardoning powers under Article 72.
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Which of the following is a power of the President related to the judiciary?
A · Appointing the Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court
The President appoints the Chief Justice and other Supreme Court judges as per Article 124.
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The President of India can be impeached on the grounds of:
A · Violation of the Constitution
Impeachment is only possible for violation of the Constitution as per Article 61.
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What majority is needed for the Rajya Sabha to pass a resolution to impeach the President?
B · Two-thirds of members present and voting
A two-thirds majority of members present and voting in the Rajya Sabha is necessary for initiating impeachment.
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After passing the impeachment resolution in Rajya Sabha, which house conducts the trial for removal?
A · Lok Sabha
The Lok Sabha conducts the trial upon the impeachment notice passed by the Rajya Sabha under Article 61.
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Which of the following can result in removal of the President of India?
A · Impeachment for violation of the Constitution
The President can be removed only by impeachment for violation of the Constitution.
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The Vice President of India acts as the ex officio Chairman of:
B · Rajya Sabha
The Vice President is the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha as per Article 64.
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Which of the following is NOT a qualification to become the Vice President of India?
D · Must be a member of Lok Sabha
The Vice President must be qualified to be a Rajya Sabha member, not necessarily a member of Lok Sabha.
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The Vice President of India holds office for a term of:
A · Five years from assuming office
The Vice President holds office for five years from the date he assumes office as per Article 66.
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Which of the following describes a key duty of the Vice President of India?
A · Act as President in case of vacancy or absence
The Vice President serves as acting President during vacancy or absence of the President.
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Which of these is a power of the Vice President of India?
A · Casting vote in Rajya Sabha
The Vice President has the casting vote in Rajya Sabha in case of ties.
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The Vice President is elected by an electoral college consisting of:
A · Members of both Houses of Parliament
The Vice President is elected by members of both Houses of Parliament, including nominated members.
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Which voting system is used for the election of the Vice President?
A · Proportional representation by single transferable vote
The election uses proportional representation with single transferable vote as per Article 66.
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Who conducts the election of the Vice President?
A · Chief Election Commissioner
The Chief Election Commissioner conducts the Vice Presidential election on behalf of the Election Commission.
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Which of the following powers is exclusively exercised by the Vice President?
A · Presiding over Rajya Sabha sessions
The Vice President exclusively presides over the Rajya Sabha as its Chairman.
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In the event of a tie during voting in Rajya Sabha, the Vice President:
A · Has a casting vote
As the Chairman of Rajya Sabha, the Vice President has the casting vote to break tie votes.
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Which statement correctly describes the relationship between the President and Vice President of India?
A · Vice President acts as the successor to the President in case of vacancy
The Vice President acts as acting President in case of vacancy or absence as per constitutional provisions.
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If the President resigns, which of the following happens according to the Constitution?
A · Vice President becomes Acting President until election
The Vice President acts as President until a new President is elected in case of resignation.
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Which of the following circumstances require the Vice President of India to act as the President?
A · During absence, resignation, removal, or death of the President
The Vice President acts as the President during absence, vacancy due to resignation, removal, or death.
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Which constitutional provision deals with the succession to the President and acting President provisions?
A · Article 65
Article 65 of the Constitution provides for the Vice President to act as President in the absence or vacancy.
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If the office of both President and Vice President falls vacant simultaneously, who discharges the functions of the President until a new President is elected?
A · Chief Justice of India
In simultaneous vacancy, the Chief Justice acts as President till the new President is elected (Conventionally).
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Which provision allows the Vice President to perform the functions of the President during temporary absence?
B · Article 65
Article 65 provides that the Vice President shall act as President during the President’s absence or vacancy.
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Which of the following best describes the constitutional role of the President of India?
B · The supreme executive authority and head of the state with constitutional powers
The President of India is the supreme executive authority and head of the state with significant constitutional powers, although many are exercised on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
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The President of India acts as the guardian of which of the following?
A · The Constitution and laws of India
The President is the guardian of the Constitution and ensures that laws passed by Parliament conform to constitutional provisions.
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Which of the following constitutional articles specify the term length of the President of India?
A · Article 56
Article 56 of the Indian Constitution specifies that the President shall hold office for a term of five years.
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The President of India can dissolve the Lok Sabha on whose advice?
B · Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
The President exercises the power to dissolve Lok Sabha based on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
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Which of the following statements about the President of India's position is NOT correct?
C · The President can independently amend the Constitution
The President cannot independently amend the Constitution; amendments require parliamentary approval as per the prescribed procedure.
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Under which system is the President of India elected?
B · Electoral college consisting of MPs and MLAs
The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union territories.
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Which of the following principles governs the value of votes of MPs and MLAs during the Presidential election?
B · Proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote
The election is conducted by proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote with weighted votes for MPs and MLAs.
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Which of the following is the total term duration for which a President can hold office in India without re-election?
B · 5 years
The President of India holds office for a term of 5 years but may be re-elected for subsequent terms.
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A candidate for the Presidency must be at least __________ years of age as per the Constitution.
B · 35
The minimum age qualification for a Presidential candidate is 35 years as stated in Article 58.
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The President of India holds which of the following powers in relation to the armed forces?
B · Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces but acts on advice of the Council of Ministers
The President is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces but exercises this power based on ministerial advice.
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Which power allows the President to withhold assent to a bill passed by Parliament in India?
B · Veto Power
The President in India has the power of veto, including absolute, suspensive, or pocket veto to withhold assent to certain bills.
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Which of the following is NOT a power of the President of India?
D · Directing the day-to-day administration of the government
The President does not direct day-to-day administration; this is done by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
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The President of India can promulgate ordinances when:
B · Parliament is in recess or not in session
The President can issue ordinances only when either House is not in session, subject to later approval by Parliament.
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Which of the following is a discretionary power of the President of India?
A · Appointing the Prime Minister when no party has a clear majority
In situations where no party has a majority, the President’s choice of Prime Minister is a discretionary power.
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Which one of the following is NOT part of the impeachment grounds for the President of India?
B · Misdemeanour
The Constitution specifies 'violation of the Constitution' as grounds for impeachment; treason is a criminal offence but not a separate impeachment ground.
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What majority is required in both Houses of Parliament to impeach the President of India for violation of the Constitution?
B · Two-thirds majority of members present and voting in both Houses
A two-thirds majority of members present and voting is required in both Houses for impeachment proceedings of the President.
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If the President of India is removed by impeachment, who acts as President until a new President is elected?
B · Vice President
The Vice President acts as President during a vacancy caused by impeachment until a new President is elected.
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Which of the following is a correct sequence of the impeachment procedure for the President of India?
A · Notice by 1/4th of members, inquiry, two-thirds majority in both Houses
The procedure starts with notice by 1/4th members in either House, followed by inquiry and then approval by two-thirds majority in both Houses.
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The Vice President of India is elected by:
B · Electoral college of just elected members of both Houses of Parliament
The Vice President is elected by an electoral college consisting only of members of both Houses of Parliament, including nominated members.
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What is the minimum age required to contest the election for Vice President of India?
B · 35 years
The minimum age to be eligible for Vice President is 35 years under the Constitution.
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Which article deals with the election, term, and qualifications of the Vice President of India?
A · Article 66
Article 66 lays down provisions related to the Vice President including election and term of office.
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The Vice President of India serves a term of how many years after election?
B · 5 years
The Vice President holds office for a term of 5 years as per the Constitution.
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Which one of the following is NOT a function of the Vice President of India?
C · Head of the Council of Ministers
The Vice President is not head of the Council of Ministers; this role belongs to the Prime Minister.
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When the Vice President acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, his role includes:
A · Casting vote to break ties
As Chairman of Rajya Sabha, the Vice President has the casting vote in case of tie during voting.
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In the event of the President's death, who assumes the office until the new President is elected?
C · Vice President
The Vice President officiates as Acting President in the event of death, resignation, or removal of the President.
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Which of the following best describes the relationship between the President and the Vice President of India?
B · The Vice President is second highest constitutional office and acts as President when needed
The Vice President is the second highest constitutional authority and acts as President when the office is vacant.
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Which power is exclusive to the President of India and cannot be exercised by the Vice President?
A · Dissolution of Lok Sabha
Only the President has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha, the Vice President does not hold this power.
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How can the Vice President of India be removed from office before completion of the term?
C · By a resolution passed by a majority of all members of Rajya Sabha
The Vice President can be removed by a resolution passed by Rajya Sabha with a majority of all its members.
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When can the Vice President act as the President of India according to the Constitution?
B · In case of death, removal, resignation or inability of President to discharge duties
The Vice President acts as President during death, resignation, removal or otherwise inability to discharge duties of the President.
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In the line of succession to the Presidency, who comes immediately after the Vice President if both the President and Vice President posts are vacant?
C · Speaker of the Lok Sabha
If both President and Vice President offices are vacant, the Speaker of Lok Sabha acts as President until a new election.
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The maximum period for which the Vice President can act as President in the absence of an elected President is:
A · Six months
The Vice President acts as President until a new President is elected, which must happen within six months of the vacancy.
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If the President of India is unable to perform duties due to temporary absence, who exercises the President’s powers?
B · Vice President
During temporary absence, the Vice President discharges the duties of the President as Acting President.
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Which of the following best describes the composition of the Cabinet in India?
C · Prime Minister and Cabinet Ministers only, excluding Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers
The Cabinet consists only of the Prime Minister and Cabinet Ministers. Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers are part of the Council of Ministers but not the Cabinet.
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The maximum size of the Council of Ministers, as per the Constitution of India, should not exceed what percentage of the total number of Lok Sabha members?
A · 15%
The 91st Amendment Act of 2003 caps the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, at 15% of the total Lok Sabha strength.
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Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Cabinet's structure in India?
D · Ministers of State have independent charge of ministries
Ministers of State usually assist Cabinet Ministers and often do not have independent charge, except in some cases where explicitly stated.
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Which category of ministers does the Deputy Minister fall under in the Indian Government?
C · Subordinate Ministers
Deputy Ministers are junior ministers who assist Cabinet Ministers but do not belong to the Cabinet or Ministers of State categories.
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Which type of Minister can hold independent charge of a ministry without a Cabinet Minister above them?
B · Minister of State with independent charge
Ministers of State with independent charge manage ministries without a Cabinet Minister present and report directly to the Prime Minister.
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Which of the following statements correctly describes Cabinet Ministers?
B · They have full charge of ministries and sit in the Cabinet
Cabinet Ministers head ministries and are full members of the Cabinet, playing the most significant role in executive decisions.
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Who appoints the ministers in the Union Government of India?
A · The President on the advice of the Prime Minister
The President appoints ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister according to constitutional procedure.
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Under what constitutional provision can the President remove a minister from office?
A · Article 75, on the advice of the Prime Minister
Article 75 empowers the President to remove ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister.
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Which of the following is TRUE regarding the removal of a minister in India?
C · The Prime Minister can advise the President to remove any minister at any time
The Prime Minister holds the authority to advise the President to remove ministers whenever necessary.
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The tenure of a minister in the Indian Cabinet is:
B · As long as the Prime Minister desires and the President agrees
Ministers hold office at the pleasure of the President but practically serve as long as the Prime Minister wants.
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Which of the following is the primary role of ministers in the Indian government?
B · To administer and manage government departments
Ministers are responsible for administration and management of their respective ministries and government departments.
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Which responsibility ensures that ministers answer to Parliament for their work?
B · Individual Ministerial Responsibility
Individual ministerial responsibility means a minister is accountable to Parliament for their ministry's functions and administrative actions.
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Which of the following is NOT typically a responsibility of a Cabinet Minister?
C · Overseeing daily administrative functions personally
While Cabinet Ministers are responsible for oversight and policy, the daily administrative tasks are carried out by bureaucrats.
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The responsibility of the entire Cabinet to stand or fall together before Parliament is called:
A · Collective Ministerial Responsibility
Collective ministerial responsibility means all members of the Cabinet share responsibility for government decisions and policies.
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When a single minister is held accountable to Parliament for the functioning of their ministry, this denotes:
B · Individual responsibility
Individual responsibility holds each minister accountable for their ministry's actions to the Parliament.
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Which of the following is an example of collective ministerial responsibility in the Indian context?
B · The entire Cabinet resigning following a vote of no confidence
If the government loses majority support, the entire Cabinet is expected to resign, demonstrating collective responsibility.
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Under which circumstance can individual ministerial responsibility lead to a minister's resignation?
B · When a minister is directly responsible for a departmental failure
A minister must resign if held personally responsible for a serious failure or misconduct in their ministry.
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One important power of the Cabinet in India is to:
B · Frame policies and take collective decisions on government administration
The Cabinet is the principal decision-making body responsible for framing policies and decisions for the government.
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Which function is NOT a power of the Cabinet in the Indian parliamentary system?
C · Directly enacting laws without the President's assent
Legislation requires parliamentary approval and Presidential assent; the Cabinet cannot enact laws unilaterally.
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Which of the following is a collective power of the Cabinet of India?
B · Formulating government policy
Formulation of government policy is a collective Cabinet function, while other options are the Governor General/President or Judiciary functions.
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The Cabinet’s role in the Indian parliamentary system includes all EXCEPT:
C · Controlling the armed forces
Controlling armed forces is under the President as Commander-in-Chief, though the Cabinet advises the President.
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Which statement expresses the relationship between the Prime Minister and the Cabinet in India?
A · The Prime Minister is the head of the Cabinet and coordinates its functions
The Prime Minister leads the Cabinet, sets agenda, and coordinates decisions.
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The Prime Minister’s role in relation to the Cabinet includes:
B · Chairing Cabinet meetings and deciding the agenda
The Prime Minister chairs Cabinet meetings and controls the agenda, but ministers are appointed by the President on PM's advice.
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Which of the following best describes the hierarchical relationship between the Prime Minister and Cabinet Ministers?
B · The Prime Minister holds primacy and leadership over the Cabinet
The Prime Minister is primus inter pares (first among equals) but effectively leads the Cabinet.
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One key difference between Cabinet and Council of Ministers is that:
C · The Cabinet is a subset of the Council comprising senior ministers
The Cabinet is a smaller, senior group drawn from the larger Council of Ministers.
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Which of these statements about the Cabinet and the Council of Ministers is TRUE?
B · Only Cabinet Ministers attend Cabinet meetings
Only Cabinet Ministers (including the PM) attend Cabinet meetings. Ministers of State and Deputies do not.
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Which of the following is NOT a Council of Ministers category in India?
A · Council Ministers
There is no distinct category called 'Council Ministers'—the Council of Ministers is an umbrella term comprising Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers.
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Which Cabinet Committee is primarily responsible for coordination of policies relating to security and intelligence in India?
C · Security Committee
The Security Committee is tasked with matters relating to national security and intelligence coordination.
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Which Cabinet Committee in India generally deals with financial and economic affairs?
B · Expenditure Committee
The Expenditure Committee examines financial matters and monitors expenditure.
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Which Cabinet Committee in India facilitates smooth coordination between different ministries and oversees policy implementation?
B · Political Affairs Committee
The Political Affairs Committee deals with political matters and coordination among ministries.
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The Appellate Committee of Cabinet mainly deals with:
C · Resolution of inter-ministerial disputes over appointments and transfers
The Appellate Committee resolves inter-ministerial disagreements primarily related to administration.
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Which constitutional article deals with the appointment of the Prime Minister and other ministers in India?
B · Article 75
Article 75 specifies the appointment and tenure of the Prime Minister and other ministers.
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According to the Indian Constitution, the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the:
B · President
Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President as per the Constitution.
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Which Article states that there shall be a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President?
A · Article 74
Article 74 mandates the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President in exercise of his functions.
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Under Article 75 of the Indian Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the:
C · Lok Sabha
Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok Sabha, the directly elected house.
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Which constitutional provision empowers the Prime Minister to advise the President on ministerial appointments and removals?
B · Article 75(1)
Article 75(1) provides that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and other ministers on the PM's advice.
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A Minister who is not a member of Parliament can continue in office for only limited time. Which among the following scenarios violates Article 75(5) concerning this period?
C · A non-MP minister remains un-elected for 7 months after appointment due to delayed election results.
