Quick recall · 251 cards
Short MCQ-style retrieval prompts. Tap a card to reveal the answer.
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According to Article 79 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of which of the following?
C · President of India, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
PYQ
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When was the total number of Fundamental Rights reduced in the Indian Constitution?
C · 1978
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Which Constitutional Amendment Act introduced Fundamental Duties under Article 51A?
B · 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
PYQ · 2001
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Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution must be amended if a new State of the Indian Union is to be created?
A · First Schedule
PYQ
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Under which article is Parliament of India empowered to amend the Constitution?
B · Article 368
PYQ · 2022
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A bill amending the Constitution requires which of the following?
A · Prior recommendation of the President of India
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The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of which of the following?
B · Prime Minister
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Chief Ministers of all the states are ex-officio members of which of the following?
C · Inter State Council
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Who has the final right to sanction the expenditure of public money in India?
D · President
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What is the minimum age required for becoming the Prime Minister of India?
B · 25 years
PYQ
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In which year were the first general elections held in India?
D · 1951-52
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Article 351 of the Indian Constitution provides for which of the following?
A · Promotion of Hindi language
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The 96th Amendment Act of 2011 substituted which language name in the Constitution?
C · Odia for Oriya
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What is a primary role of the executive branch in the United States?
C · C. To enforce laws
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What is the President’s constitutional obligation with respect to the “State of the Union” address?
A · A. The President must deliver an annual speech to Congress that details his legislative agenda
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Until the mid-twentieth century, what was the maximum number of terms someone could serve as President of the United States?
D · D. There were no term limits
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According to the 2011 census, Madhya Pradesh is the _______ most populous state.
A · Fifth
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The power of the Supreme Court to review the constitutionality of acts of the national and state governments is known as __________.
C · Judicial review
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Federalism is defined as:
B · The division of power between national, state, and local governments
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In a federal system, the central government cannot directly order the:
C · C) State government
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In federalism, power is divided between various constituent units and:
B · B) Central authority
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Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the Election Commission?
B · Article 324
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Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
C · President of India
The President of India appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners under Article 324(2). Thus, correctAnswer is C.[5]
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Which of the following amendments to the U.S. Constitution guarantees freedom of religion?
A · First Amendment
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The Second Amendment to the U.S. Constitution provides which of the following rights?
B · Right to keep and bear arms
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Which amendment gives citizens aged 18 or older the right to vote?
D · Twenty-sixth Amendment
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The Nineteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution addresses which of the following?
B · Women's right to vote
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The Fifth Amendment protects citizens against which of the following?
C · Self-incrimination and double jeopardy
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The Thirteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution accomplished which of the following?
B · Prohibited slavery in the United States
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Which of the following was the main reason behind the delay in the framing of the Indian Constitution after independence in 1947?
B · Integration of princely states into the Indian Union
The integration of princely states into the Indian Union was a complex and sensitive issue, causing delays and requiring careful negotiation before a unified Constitution could be framed.
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Which of the following statements about the Constituent Assembly of India is correct?
A · It was formed under the Indian Independence Act 1947
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Which feature of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the British Constitution?
A · Parliamentary form of government
The Parliamentary system of government, including the Cabinet system and collective responsibility, was borrowed from the British model.
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Which of the following is NOT a salient feature of the Indian Constitution?
C · Unitary form of government
The Indian Constitution is neither purely unitary nor purely federal; it has a quasi-federal structure with both unitary and federal features.
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The Preamble of the Indian Constitution declares India as a:
A · Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
The Preamble explicitly declares India as a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic, reflecting the core values and nature of the Indian state.
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Which Article of the Indian Constitution lists Fundamental Duties for citizens?
B · Article 51A
Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976 under Article 51A.
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Which Fundamental Right was suspended during the Indian Emergency of 1975-77?
C · Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression
During the Emergency, the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression was curtailed by suspending parts of Article 19.
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The Fundamental Right to constitutional remedies is enshrined under which Article?
A · Article 32
Article 32 guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights, known as the right to constitutional remedies.
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Directive Principles of State Policy aim to:
B · Direct the state to follow certain socio-economic policies
Directive Principles, found in Part IV of the Constitution, provide broad guidelines for the government to frame policies for social and economic welfare, though they are non-justiciable.
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Which of the following territories is NOT classified as a Union Territory according to the Constitution of India?
C · Goa
Goa is a full-fledged state, not a union territory, whereas others like Lakshadweep, Chandigarh, and Puducherry are Union Territories.
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In the Indian parliamentary system, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the:
C · Lok Sabha
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, which can remove the government by a vote of no confidence.
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Which of the following is the lower house of the Indian Parliament?
B · Lok Sabha
Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Indian Parliament; Rajya Sabha is the upper house.
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Which constitutional body is known as the 'Guardian of the Constitution' in India?
B · Supreme Court
The Supreme Court is called the 'Guardian of the Constitution' because it protects the constitution by judicial review and upholding its provisions.
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Which case established the 'Basic Structure Doctrine' limiting the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution?
A · Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala
The Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati (1973) ruled that Parliament cannot alter the Constitution's basic structure by amendments.
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What is the minimum number of states that must ratify a constitutional amendment related to the distribution of powers between the Centre and States?
A · One-fourth of the states
Amendments affecting the federal structure require ratification by at least one-fourth of the state legislatures as per Article 368.
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Which language was adopted as the official language of the Indian Union according to the Constitution, with provisions for the use of English?
A · Hindi
Hindi in Devanagari script became the official language, but English was allowed for official use for 15 years and continues by extension.
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Which of the following best reflects the core values expressed in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
B · Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity
The Preamble declares India to be a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic securing to all its citizens Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity.
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Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
C · It declares India to be a sovereign socialist secular democratic republic
The Preamble declares India as a sovereign socialist secular democratic republic. It is considered a guiding principle but is not enforceable as a right.
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Which Fundamental Right was omitted from the Indian Constitution by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978?
A · Right to Property
The Right to Property was removed from the category of Fundamental Rights and converted into a constitutional/legal right under Article 300A by the 44th Amendment Act.
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Which Fundamental Duty is explicitly mentioned in the Constitution of India regarding the promotion of harmony?
C · To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India
Article 51A(e) states that it is the duty of every citizen to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all the people of India.
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Under which circumstance can the Fundamental Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression be reasonably restricted?
A · To protect public order
Article 19(2) allows the state to impose reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech in the interest of public order, security, etc.
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The Directive Principles of State Policy aim to achieve which of the following?
B · Guidelines to the Union and State governments to establish social and economic democracy
Directive Principles are recommendations to the State to ensure social justice and promote welfare, but they are not enforceable by courts.
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Which of the following Directive Principles specifically directs the State to organize village panchayats?
B · Article 40
Article 40 directs the State to take steps to organize village panchayats as units of self-government.
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The Parliament of India consists of which of the following?
B · Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and the President
As per Article 79, Parliament consists of the President, the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha.
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In case of a deadlock between the two Houses of Parliament on a Bill, how can it be resolved?
A · The President can order a joint sitting of both Houses
The Constitution permits the President to summon a joint sitting of both Houses to resolve deadlocks under Article 108.
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Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?
B · President of India
The President appoints the Prime Minister, typically the leader of the majority party in Lok Sabha.
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Which power does the President of India NOT possess?
D · Making laws without the advice of the Council of Ministers
The President acts only on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers in exercising powers, including lawmaking.
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Which of the following is a unique jurisdiction of the Supreme Court compared to High Courts?
A · Original jurisdiction in disputes between states and the Union
Article 131 gives the Supreme Court original jurisdiction in disputes between the Union and states or between states.
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The Supreme Court of India can declare a constitutional amendment invalid if it violates which doctrine?
A · Doctrine of Basic Structure
The Supreme Court ruled in Kesavananda Bharati case that amendments cannot violate the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
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In the Indian federal system, which subject list is exclusively under the jurisdiction of the Union government?
B · Union List
The Union List contains subjects on which only the Union Parliament can legislate.
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Which of the following is a feature of Indian federalism that leans towards 'strong centralism'?
B · Single Citizenship
India has a single citizenship rather than dual citizenship, indicating a strong unitary characteristic within its federal structure.
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Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the amendment procedure for the Constitution?
B · Article 368
Article 368 provides the process for amendment of the Constitution, involving Parliament and sometimes state legislatures.
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The Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution primarily aims to protect which of the following?
C · Certain laws from judicial review
Laws placed in the Ninth Schedule are protected from judicial review to promote land reforms and other social justice laws.
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Which feature of the Government of India Act, 1935 had a lasting influence on the Constitution of India?
C · Establishment of Federal Court
The Government of India Act, 1935 established the Federal Court which was a precursor to the Supreme Court of India.
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Which of the following is NOT a component of the structure of the Executive in India?
C · Supreme Court
The Supreme Court is part of the Judiciary, not the Executive branch.
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Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?
B · President of India
The President appoints the Prime Minister, typically the leader of the majority party in Lok Sabha.
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Which of the following statements accurately describes the Council of Ministers under the Indian Constitution?
C · They are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, which represents the people's will.
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Under which Article of the Indian Constitution does the President have the power to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session?
A · Article 123
Article 123 grants the President the power to issue ordinances when Parliament is not in session.
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Which of the following is a discretionary power of the President of India?
C · Dismissing a ministry when no party has a clear majority
Dismissing a ministry during a hung parliament is a discretionary power of the President.
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Which power allows the President of India to grant pardon, reprieve or remission of punishment?
B · Judicial powers
The power to grant pardons and reprieves is a judicial power of the President.
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Which of the following is an example of an 'Emergency Power' of the President of India?
C · Proclaiming a national emergency under Article 352
The declaration of national emergency under Article 352 is an emergency power of the President.
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The Prime Minister of India is primarily responsible for which of the following?
A · Advising the President
The Prime Minister advises the President and heads the Council of Ministers.
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Which one of the following statements best describes the role of the Council of Ministers in India?
C · They aid and advise the President and are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha
The Council of Ministers aids and advises the President and is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
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Under the Indian Constitution, the Prime Minister can be removed by a vote of no-confidence in the Lok Sabha under which power?
B · Article 75
Article 75 provides that the Council of Ministers, including the PM, is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
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Which of the following powers does the Governor of a state NOT have?
C · Exercising judicial powers independently of the state government
The Governor does not exercise judicial powers independently; judicial authority is vested in courts.
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How is the Governor of an Indian state appointed?
C · Appointed by the President of India
The Governor is appointed by the President of India usually for a term of five years.
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In which of the following situations can the Governor reserve a bill passed by the State Legislature for the President's consideration?
A · When the bill contradicts the Indian Constitution
The Governor may reserve a bill if it conflicts with Constitutional provisions or affects central interests.
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Which of the following is NOT a part of the Parliament of India?
C · Council of Ministers
The Council of Ministers is part of the Executive, not Parliament.
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How are the members of the Rajya Sabha elected?
B · Elected by the members of State Legislative Assemblies
Rajya Sabha members are elected indirectly by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies.
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Which of the following is a unique feature of the Rajya Sabha compared to the Lok Sabha?
B · It represents the States of the Indian Union
The Rajya Sabha represents the states through indirect election and is a permanent body.
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Which Article of the Indian Constitution defines the structure of the Parliament?
A · Article 79
Article 79 defines the Parliament as consisting of the President and two Houses.
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Which of the following is a key power of the Lok Sabha?
C · Passing the Money Bill
Only the Lok Sabha can introduce and pass Money Bills.
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Which function is NOT performed by the Lok Sabha in the Indian Parliamentary system?
D · Appointing members to the Rajya Sabha
Members of Rajya Sabha are elected by State Assemblies, not appointed by Lok Sabha.
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When the Lok Sabha passes a bill and the Rajya Sabha rejects it, how can the bill still be passed?
C · A joint sitting of both Houses can be called to resolve the deadlock
A joint sitting may be called under Article 108 to pass a bill if deadlock persists.
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Which of the following powers uniquely belongs to the Rajya Sabha?
B · Electing the Vice-President of India
Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of both Houses, but only Rajya Sabha participates in the election of the Chairman (Vice-President).
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Which of the following statements about the Rajya Sabha's powers is correct?
D · Rajya Sabha can authorize Parliament to legislate on State List subjects
Under Article 249, if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds majority, Parliament can legislate on State List matters.
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If there is a deadlock between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha on a bill other than a Money Bill, what is the Constitutional mechanism to resolve it?
B · Both Houses convene a joint sitting
A joint sitting under Article 108, presided over by the Speaker, is convened to resolve such deadlocks.
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Which of the following correctly describes the procedure for summoning and proroguing sessions of the Indian Parliament?
B · The President summons and prorogues sessions of Parliament
The President of India summons and prorogues the sessions of Parliament.
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What is the minimum number of sessions of the Indian Parliament that must be held in each year as per the Constitution?
C · Three
Parliament must meet at least three times a year with no more than six months gap between sessions.
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Which of the following stages is NOT part of the typical legislative procedure in the Lok Sabha?
D · Judicial review of the bill
Judicial review is not part of legislative procedure; it is a function of the judiciary.
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Which of the following is NOT a part of the structure of the Executive at the Union level in India?
C · Chief Minister
Chief Ministers are heads of state governments and belong to the State Executive, not the Union Executive.
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Who among the following is appointed by the President of India to aid and advise him in the exercise of his executive powers?
B · Council of Ministers
The Council of Ministers aids and advises the President as per Article 74 of the Constitution.
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The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to which of the following?
C · The Parliament
As per Article 75(3), the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, the directly elected house of Parliament.
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Which of the following statements about the President of India is true?
C · The President acts according to the advice of the Council of Ministers.
The President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, except in certain situations where discretionary powers apply.
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Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the structure and powers of the Executive?
B · Part V
Part V (Articles 52-151) deals with the Union Executive including the President, Vice-President, Council of Ministers, and the Attorney General.
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Which of the following is NOT a constitutional power of the President of India?
C · Amending the Constitution unilaterally
The President cannot amend the Constitution unilaterally; amendments require Parliament's approval.
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Which constitutional article empowers the President to declare a national emergency in India?
A · Article 352
Article 352 provides the President with the power to declare a national emergency in case of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
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The executive power of the Union government in India is vested in the President but exercised by whom in practice?
B · The Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
While the Constitution vests executive power in the President, it is exercised by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
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Which power allows the President to withhold assent to a Bill passed by Parliament and return it for reconsideration?
C · Suspensive Veto
Suspensive veto is the power of the President to return a Bill (other than a Money Bill) for reconsideration by Parliament.
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The Indian Parliament is bicameral. Which of the following pairs correctly represents its two houses?
C · Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
The Parliament consists of two houses: the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
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Which of the following is NOT a qualification for a person to be a member of the Rajya Sabha?
C · Must be a graduate
Being a graduate is not a constitutional qualification for membership of Rajya Sabha.
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How long is the term of a member of the Lok Sabha, unless dissolved earlier?
A · 5 years
Members of the Lok Sabha are elected for a 5-year term unless the house is dissolved sooner.
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Which house of the Indian Parliament represents the States and Union territories?
B · Rajya Sabha
Rajya Sabha represents the States and Union territories with members elected by elected members of State Legislative Assemblies.
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Which of the following statements about a Money Bill in the Indian Parliament is correct?
B · A Money Bill needs approval only from the Lok Sabha for passage.
Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha and require its approval; Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations which Lok Sabha may accept or reject.
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Which power does the Indian Parliament NOT possess?
C · Power to dissolve the Rajya Sabha
Rajya Sabha is a permanent house and cannot be dissolved but one-third members retire every two years.
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Which Article provides for the summoning and proroguing of sessions of Parliament by the President?
A · Article 85
Article 85 of the Constitution states that the President summons Parliament and can prorogue or dissolve the Lok Sabha.
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The power to make laws on subjects in the State List during a national emergency vests with which of the following?
B · Union Parliament
During a national emergency, Parliament acquires the power to legislate on subjects in the State List.
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Which of the following is a power of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha related to the Executive and Legislature relationship?
B · Deciding whether a Bill is a Money Bill
The Speaker alone decides whether a Bill introduced in Parliament qualifies as a Money Bill.
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If a motion of no-confidence is passed against the Council of Ministers, which of the following must happen?
B · The Council of Ministers must resign
A successful no-confidence motion requires the Council of Ministers to resign as they have lost majority confidence.
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Which constitutional mechanism ensures the accountability of the Executive to the Legislature in India?
B · Parliamentary Question Hour
Parliamentary Question Hour provides a forum for Parliament to question the Executive, ensuring accountability.
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Which Article of the Indian Constitution contains the provision for the appointment of the Prime Minister?
A · Article 75
Article 75 states that the Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India.
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Which two constitutional provisions relate to the sessions of Parliament and the legislative powers of the President respectively?
A · Article 85 and Article 123
Article 85 deals with sessions of Parliament, while Article 123 gives the President executive powers to promulgate ordinances.
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Which feature of the Government of India Act, 1935, had the most lasting impact on the Indian Constitution's federal structure?
B · Establishment of the All India Federation with separate federal and provincial subjects
The Act provided for a federal structure with federal and provincial subjects, influencing the federal design in the Constitution.
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Which of the following was NOT a feature introduced by the Government of India Act, 1935?
C · Direct election of the President of India
The Act did not provide for a President or their election; the office was created later by the Constitution.
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Which of the following correctly represents the hierarchical structure of the judiciary in India from top to bottom?
A · Supreme Court → High Courts → Subordinate Courts
The judiciary in India is structured in a three-tier system with the Supreme Court at the apex, followed by the High Courts at the state level, and Subordinate Courts at the district and lower levels.
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What is the primary function of the subordinate courts in India?
B · Adjudicating original civil and criminal cases at the district level
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Which one of the following statements best describes the role of High Courts in India?
C · They supervise all subordinate courts in their respective states and have both original and appellate jurisdiction.
High Courts exercise original as well as appellate jurisdiction, and they supervise all subordinate courts within their jurisdiction.
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Which Article of the Indian Constitution establishes the Supreme Court of India?
A · Article 124
Article 124 of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment and constitution of the Supreme Court of India.
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Who appoints the Chief Justice of India according to prevailing practices?
D · The Supreme Court collegium recommends and the President appoints the Chief Justice
The appointment of the Chief Justice of India is made by the President after the recommendation of the Supreme Court collegium, which typically follows the seniority convention.
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Which of the following powers is exclusively vested in the Supreme Court of India?
B · Advisory jurisdiction under Article 143
Article 143 confers advisory jurisdiction exclusively to the Supreme Court of India, allowing it to give opinions on questions of law or fact referred to it by the President.
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Which of the following is NOT a jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India?
D · Trial of offences under State Laws
The Supreme Court does not try offences under state laws; such matters are tried by subordinate and special courts. The Supreme Court mainly exercises original, appellate, and writ jurisdiction.
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Which body is responsible for the transfer of judges from one High Court to another in India?
A · Supreme Court collegium
The transfer of High Court judges is done by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India. In practice, the Supreme Court collegium initiates and recommends such transfers.
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Which Article of the Indian Constitution governs the appointment of High Court judges?
A · Article 217
Article 217 deals specifically with the appointment and conditions of the office of a Judge of a High Court.
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Which of the following statements is true about the collegium system for judicial appointment in India?
C · It is a system where the Chief Justice of India and a forum of senior judges recommend judicial appointments.
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Which Article of the Constitution provides for the power of Judicial Review to the Indian judiciary?
C · Not explicitly mentioned but implied under the Constitution
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Which of the following is NOT a writ issued by the Supreme Court under its writ jurisdiction?
C · Cognizance
Cognizance is a legal term referring to the court's awareness of a matter, but it is not a writ. Habeas Corpus, Quo Warranto, and Certiorari are among the writs provided under Articles 32 and 226.
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Which judicial doctrine prevents Parliament from altering the 'basic structure' of the Indian Constitution?
B · Doctrine of Basic Structure
The Doctrine of Basic Structure, established by the Supreme Court, holds that certain fundamental features of the Constitution cannot be altered or destroyed by parliamentary amendments.
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Which of the following cases is associated with the establishment of the Doctrine of Basic Structure?
A · Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
The landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) laid down the Doctrine of Basic Structure, limiting Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution.
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Which of the following powers does NOT relate to judicial review exercised by Indian courts?
C · Evaluating policy decisions of the government based on political considerations
Judicial review excludes political and policy decisions as these fall within the exclusive domain of the executive and legislature. Courts intervene only on legal and constitutional grounds.
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Which writ orders a public authority to cease illegal detention of a person and produce them before the court?
A · Habeas Corpus
Habeas Corpus is a writ directing authorities to bring a detained person before the court to examine legality of detention.
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Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India primarily aims to:
C · Allow any public-spirited individual or organisation to approach courts for protecting public interest
PIL allows citizens or organisations to file petitions in the interest of the public, especially for disadvantaged groups, broadening access to justice.
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Which of the following Supreme Court judgments is credited with expanding the scope of Public Interest Litigation (PIL)?
D · S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
The 1981 S.P. Gupta case expanded the locus standi principle, enabling PILs and allowing public-spirited persons to approach courts on behalf of people who otherwise have no access.
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Under which Article(s) do the High Courts exercise writ jurisdiction for enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
B · Article 226 only
High Courts exercise writ jurisdiction under Article 226 for enforcement of Fundamental Rights and any other legal rights. Article 32 pertains to the Supreme Court's writ jurisdiction.
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Which writ is issued by a superior court to quash the order passed by an inferior court or tribunal?
A · Certiorari
Certiorari is a writ which quashes the order or decision of an inferior court, tribunal or authority if it has acted without jurisdiction or in violation of natural justice.
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Which principle ensures that the judiciary in India functions free from influence by the executive and legislature?
C · Judicial Independence
Judicial Independence is the principle that guarantees the judiciary autonomy in decision-making, free from external pressures, maintaining the rule of law and separation of powers.
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Which institution or mechanism is primarily responsible for ensuring judicial accountability in India?
A · The Parliament through impeachment proceedings
Judicial accountability is mainly ensured through constitutional safeguards such as the impeachment of judges for proven misconduct by Parliament.
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Which Article provides grounds and procedure for the removal of a Supreme Court or High Court judge in India?
A · Article 124(4) and Article 217(1)(b)
Article 124(4) and Article 217(1)(b) provide the procedure and grounds for removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges respectively through impeachment for proved misbehavior or incapacity.
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Which of the following are examples of tribunals in India that work as special forums outside the traditional judiciary?
A · Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, Central Administrative Tribunal, National Green Tribunal
Tribunals such as ITAT, CAT, and NGT are quasi-judicial bodies created for specialized adjudication in areas like taxation, administration, and environment.
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Which is the primary objective of establishing special courts in India?
B · To expedite trial of specific offenses such as corruption, terrorism, or economic crimes
Special courts are set up to reduce the burden on regular judiciary and expedite trials for specific categories of cases like corruption, economic offences, and terrorism.
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Which of the following statements about the Doctrine of Basic Structure is correct?
B · Amendments violating the basic structure can be invalidated by the judiciary.
Under the Doctrine of Basic Structure, amendments that damage or destroy the essential features of the Constitution can be struck down by the judiciary.
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Which of the following is NOT considered a part of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution as established by the Supreme Court?
D · Parliamentary sovereignty
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Which of these is a characteristic feature that maintains the independence of the judiciary in India?
A · Fixed tenure for judges till retirement with no arbitrary removal
Judicial independence is maintained by fixed tenures, security of tenure, and a procedure for removal that excludes arbitrary action by the executive or legislature.
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Which of the following correctly describes the hierarchical structure of the Indian Judiciary?
C · Supreme Court, High Courts, Subordinate Courts
The Indian Judiciary is structured with the Supreme Court at the top, followed by High Courts at the state level, and Subordinate Courts at the district and lower levels.
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Which of the following courts has original jurisdiction in constitutional matters in India?
B · Supreme Court
The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in cases involving interpretation of the Constitution of India.
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The Supreme Court of India was established on which date?
C · 28 January 1950
The Supreme Court of India started functioning on 28 January 1950, a few days before the Constitution came into effect.
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Which part of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to enforce fundamental rights through writs?
B · Article 32
Article 32 of the Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
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Which of the following writs is issued to protect a person from illegal detention by the government?
C · Habeas Corpus
Habeas Corpus is a writ issued to safeguard individual liberty against illegal detention or imprisonment.
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How many High Courts are there in India as of 2024?
B · 31
As of 2024, India has 31 High Courts across various states and union territories.
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Which court hears appeals against the judgments of the District courts in India?
B · High Court
High Courts hear appeals from subordinate courts including District Courts within their respective jurisdictions.
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Which authority recommends the appointment of Judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts in India?
C · Collegium of senior Supreme Court Judges
The collegium system comprising the CJI and senior Supreme Court judges recommends appointments to the higher judiciary.
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Transfer of a High Court judge from one state to another can be ordered by the President only after consulting with:
A · Chief Justice of India
The President transfers High Court judges after consultation with the CJI as per Article 222.
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The Memorandum of Procedure (MoP) is related to which aspect of judiciary?
A · Appointment and transfer of judges
The MoP lays down detailed procedures for the appointment and transfer of judges in the higher judiciary.
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Judicial Review in India primarily ensures that:
C · Legislative and executive actions conform to the Constitution
Judicial review allows courts to invalidate laws and executive actions that violate the Constitution.
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Which landmark case established the supremacy of the Constitution and judicial review in India?
A · Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
The Kesavananda Bharati case upheld judicial review and introduced the Basic Structure doctrine limiting Parliament's amending power.
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The independence of the judiciary in India is protected by which of the following?
A · Fixed tenure of judges and security of salary
Constitutional safeguards like fixed tenure, protection of salary, and security of tenure help maintain judicial independence.
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Which of the following is a ground for removal of a Supreme Court judge in India?
B · Misbehaviour and incapacity
Judges can be removed on grounds of misbehaviour or incapacity through impeachment by Parliament.
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Public Interest Litigation (PIL) primarily aims to:
B · Enable any public-spirited person to approach courts for justice
PIL allows courts to address grievances affecting the public at large, even when petitioners are not directly involved.
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India?
C · Only individuals affected have the right to file PIL
PIL allows any public-spirited individual to file petitions even if not directly affected, relaxing the rule of locus standi.
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Which writ issued by the High Court or Supreme Court directs a lower court to stop proceedings in a case?
A · Certiorari
Certiorari is issued to quash orders passed by lower courts or tribunals if they have acted without jurisdiction or violated principles of natural justice.
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Which of the following writs compels a public official to perform a duty they are obligated to perform?
A · Mandamus
Mandamus compels authorities to perform their official duties as mandated by law.
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Tribunals in India primarily serve to:
B · Hear specialized disputes outside ordinary courts
Tribunals are quasi-judicial bodies that handle specific disputes such as administrative, tax, or service matters to reduce judicial workload.
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Which of the following is an important alternative dispute resolution mechanism recognized in India?
B · Arbitration
Arbitration is a method where disputing parties appoint a neutral third party to resolve conflicts outside court.
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The Thirty-first Constitutional Amendment Act, 1973 made which of the following changes related to tribunals?
B · Empowered tribunals to hear disputes relating to administrative matters
The amendment empowered tribunals to handle administrative disputes, expanding their jurisdiction and role.
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Which of the following is NOT part of the Doctrine of Basic Structure of the Constitution?
C · Parliamentary sovereignty over fundamental rights
The doctrine restricts parliamentary sovereignty by protecting fundamental features of the Constitution from amendment, including fundamental rights.
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Which case firmly established the Doctrine of Basic Structure in Indian constitutional law?
B · Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) is the landmark case that laid down the Doctrine of Basic Structure limiting Parliament's power to amend the Constitution.
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Which of the following is considered a 'basic structure' feature of the Indian Constitution?
B · Secularism
Secularism is a fundamental feature that constitutes part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution, thus protecting it from amendments.
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Judicial Activism in India refers to the judiciary's tendency to:
B · Expand rights and enforce constitutional morality beyond traditional roles
Judicial activism involves courts actively protecting rights and ensuring justice, sometimes going beyond strict legalities to achieve social goals.
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Judicial restraint is characterized by:
A · Deference to the legislature and executives and minimal interference
Judicial restraint advocates respect for the separation of powers and minimal court interference in policy matters reserved for elected bodies.
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Which of the following describes the electoral system used for Lok Sabha elections in India?
B · First-Past-The-Post (FPTP)
India uses the First-Past-The-Post system for Lok Sabha elections, where the candidate with the highest number of votes in a constituency wins the seat.
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Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the conduct of elections in India?
A · Article 324
Article 324 vests the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections in India with the Election Commission of India.
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What is the main purpose of delimitation in the Indian electoral system?
B · To redraw the boundaries of electoral constituencies
Delimitation is the process of redrawing the boundaries of electoral constituencies based on population changes to ensure balanced representation.
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Which of the following is NOT a type of election held in India?
D · Colonial Election
Colonial election is not a type of election in India; the others are recognized elections at various levels.
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Which type of election is conducted to fill a vacancy arising out of death or resignation of a sitting member?
C · By-election
By-elections are held to fill vacancies between general elections.
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The Rajya Sabha members are elected by which method?
C · Indirect election by the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies
Rajya Sabha members are elected indirectly by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies through proportional representation.
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Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
B · President of India
The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President of India according to Article 324 of the Constitution.
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Which of the following is NOT a function of the Election Commission of India?
C · Framing the election manifesto of political parties
Framing political parties' election manifestos is not a function of the Election Commission; it is done by the parties themselves.
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What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner in India?
B · 6 years or up to 62 years of age, whichever is earlier
The Chief Election Commissioner holds office for six years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier, per existing norms.
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Which of the following statements about the independence of the Election Commission of India is correct?
B · The Election Commission is independent and CEC can be removed only by impeachment by Parliament.
The Chief Election Commissioner can only be removed through impeachment in Parliament, ensuring independence of the Election Commission.
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Which document is issued to a citizen to enable registration as a voter in India?
C · Voter ID Card (Elector's Photo Identity Card - EPIC)
Voter ID Card also known as Elector's Photo Identity Card (EPIC) is issued after registration to allow citizens to vote.
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What is the minimum age required for a citizen to register as a voter in India?
B · 18 years
The minimum age for voter registration in India is 18 years as per the Representation of People Act.
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Who is responsible for preparing and revising the electoral rolls in India?
A · Election Commission of India through State Election Officers
The Election Commission supervises preparation and revision of electoral rolls through State Election Officers.
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Which of the following is a qualification for a citizen to be included in the electoral roll in India?
D · Must be at least 18 years of age and ordinarily resident in that constituency
To be included in the electoral roll, the voter must be at least 18 years old and ordinarily resident in the constituency.
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Which of the following is NOT a recognized category of political parties in India?
D · Federal Party
Federal Party is not recognized in Indian political classification; the others are official categories.
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What is a coalition government?
B · A government formed jointly by two or more political parties
A coalition government is formed when two or more parties join together to form a majority and govern.
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Which of the following is an example of a pre-poll alliance in Indian politics?
A · United Progressive Alliance (UPA)
United Progressive Alliance (UPA) is an example of a pre-poll alliance among several parties formed before elections.
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Which informal agreement issued by the Election Commission guides the behavior of political parties during elections?
A · Model Code of Conduct
The Model Code of Conduct is an informal set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission that political parties must follow.
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When does the Model Code of Conduct come into force in the context of Indian elections?
B · From the date the election schedule is announced
The Model Code of Conduct becomes effective immediately when the Election Commission announces the election schedule.
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Which of the following is prohibited by the Model Code of Conduct during elections?
C · Use of government officials for election work
The Model Code prohibits the use of government officials for election campaign or propaganda activities.
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Who enforces the Model Code of Conduct in India?
B · The Election Commission of India
The Election Commission of India monitors and enforces compliance with the Model Code of Conduct.
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Which Act regulates the expenditure limits for candidates in Indian elections?
A · Representation of the People Act, 1951
The Representation of the People Act, 1951 lays down rules including expenditure limits for electoral candidates.
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Which body is responsible for monitoring election expenses of candidates and political parties in India?
B · Election Commission of India
The Election Commission oversees and monitors election expenditures to ensure compliance with regulations.
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Which of the following sources of funds are prohibited for election campaigns under Indian law?
B · Contributions from foreign nationals or companies
Contributions from foreign nationals or foreign companies are banned for election campaign funding by Indian parties and candidates.
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Which reform aimed at increasing transparency in campaign finance was introduced by the Election Commission?
A · Mandatory disclosure of expenditure by candidates
To improve transparency, candidates must provide detailed expenditure statements to the Election Commission after elections.
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Which of the following technologies is officially used for voting in Indian elections since the 1990s?
A · Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs)
Electronic Voting Machines have been introduced since the 1990s and are widely used in Indian elections to ensure efficiency and reduce malpractices.
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What does VVPAT stand for in context of Indian elections?
A · Voter Verified Paper Audit Trail
VVPAT stands for Voter Verified Paper Audit Trail, a system attached to EVMs to allow voters to verify their votes.
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Which characteristic of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) helps prevent invalid ballots in Indian elections?
B · Single button press to record vote, no invalid vote possible
EVMs record votes when a voter presses a single button; multiple votes or invalid votes cannot be cast.
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Which of the following is a major challenge in using technology for elections in India?
B · Ensuring security and voter confidence in machines
Ensuring the security of EVMs and voter confidence in them remains a major challenge in India.
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Which of the following is considered an electoral malpractice in India?
B · Distribution of money or gifts to influence voters
Distribution of money or gifts to voters to influence their decision is an electoral malpractice prohibited by law.
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Which legal provision deals with corrupt practices in elections in India?
B · Representation of the People Act, 1951
The Representation of the People Act, 1951 contains extensive provisions dealing with corrupt electoral practices and penalties.
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Which authority in India has the power to disqualify a candidate for electoral malpractices?
C · Lok Sabha Speaker or Rajya Sabha Chairperson
The Speaker of Lok Sabha or Chairperson of Rajya Sabha has the power to disqualify members for electoral malpractices under the Constitution.
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Which of the following reforms has been suggested to curb electoral malpractices in India?
B · State funding of elections
State funding of elections has been suggested as a reform to reduce the influence of money and curb malpractices.
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Which Supreme Court case emphasized the need for greater transparency in election expenditure in India?
B · Lily Thomas vs Union of India
In Lily Thomas vs Union of India, the Supreme Court stressed transparency and accountability in election expenditures.
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Which of the following electoral systems is primarily used for Lok Sabha elections in India?
B · First Past the Post
India uses the First Past the Post system for Lok Sabha elections where the candidate with the most votes in a constituency wins.
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What characteristic differentiates a direct election from an indirect election in the Indian electoral system?
B · Voters vote directly in direct elections
In direct elections, voters cast their votes directly for the candidates, whereas in indirect elections, elected representatives vote on behalf of the people.
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Which of the following bodies is responsible for conducting elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President of India?
C · Election Commission of India
The Election Commission of India supervises and conducts elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President.
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Which document prescribes the qualifications for a person to be eligible to vote in Indian elections?
A · Representation of the People Act, 1950
The Representation of the People Act, 1950, lays down the rules for voter eligibility including age, citizenship, and residence.
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The Model Code of Conduct comes into effect during:
B · From the date the Election Commission announces the election schedule
The Model Code of Conduct is enforced from the announcement of the election schedule till the election process concludes.
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Which of the following is not a stage in the process of Indian elections?
C · Judicial Review
Judicial review is not a formal stage in the election process; the main stages are nomination, polling, and counting.
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Which of the following is NOT a recognized category of political parties in India as per the Election Commission?
C · Local Party
The Election Commission classifies parties as National, State, or Registered Unrecognized; there is no category called Local Party.
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In which election is the Single Transferable Vote system predominantly used in India?
B · Rajya Sabha elections
Rajya Sabha members are elected by the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies through the Single Transferable Vote system.
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Who has the power to disqualify legislators under the Anti-Defection Law in India?
A · Speaker of the House
The Speaker of the respective House has the authority to decide on disqualification cases under the Anti-Defection Law.
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Which law governs the expenditure limits and the accounting of election expenses by candidates in India?
A · Representation of the People Act, 1951
The Representation of the People Act, 1951 defines expenditure limits and mandates the submission of election expense accounts by candidates.
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Which of the following reform recommendations was made by the Election Commission of India to improve transparency in campaign financing?
A · Abolition of cash donations above a specified limit
The Election Commission has suggested banning cash donations above a certain threshold to curb illegal funding and increase transparency.
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What constitutional amendment introduced the Anti-Defection Law into the Indian polity?
B · 52nd Amendment, 1985
The 52nd Amendment in 1985 inserted the Tenth Schedule, which contains the Anti-Defection Law.
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Which provision regulates the Model Code of Conduct in India?
C · It is an advisory issued by the Election Commission
The Model Code of Conduct is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission but is not a statutory or constitutional provision.
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Which of the following is a key challenge faced in Indian elections related to electoral rolls?
A · Inclusion of non-existent or duplicate voters
A significant challenge is the presence of duplicate or bogus names in electoral rolls leading to potential fraud.
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During elections, which form of election is held to fill vacancies caused unexpectedly?
B · By-Election
By-elections are conducted to fill seats that fall vacant during the tenure due to death, resignation, or disqualification of a member.
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Which of the following is NOT a function of the Election Commission of India?
B · Delimitation of constituencies
Delimitation is conducted by a separate Delimitation Commission, not by the Election Commission.
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Which of the following criteria is mandatory for a political party to be recognized as a National Party in India?
C · Recognition as state party in at least four states
One condition for National Party status is recognition as a State Party in at least four states.
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Which of these provisions is a major feature of the Anti-Defection Law in India?
B · Disqualification for voluntarily giving up party membership
The Law stipulates disqualification if a member voluntarily gives up party membership or votes against the party whip without permission.
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The term 'NOTA' option in Indian elections allows voters to:
A · Vote for a None of the Above choice
NOTA (None of the Above) allows voters to reject all candidates if they do not find any appealing.
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Which of these is a stage in Indian elections where candidates file their nomination papers?
B · Scrutiny
Scrutiny is the stage where the nomination papers submitted by candidates are examined for validity.
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According to the Model Code of Conduct, which of these actions is prohibited for political parties during elections?
A · Announcing new government schemes
Announcing new schemes or policy decisions that may influence voters is prohibited during the code period.
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Which of the following is a major electoral challenge posed by money power in Indian elections?
B · Influence on voter preferences and unfair advantage
Excessive campaign financing can unduly influence voters and create unfair competition, undermining democratic fairness.
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What is the upper age limit to be eligible to vote in Indian elections as per the current law?
B · No upper age limit
There is no upper age limit for voting eligibility in India; only a minimum age of 18 is required.
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In which case can the Election Commission of India postpone or countermand a poll?
B · Malpractice or large-scale electoral fraud
Election Commission can postpone or countermand polls if there is evidence of malpractice or corrupt practices affecting the conduct.
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Which of the following election types in India elects members by an electoral college rather than general electorate?
B · Rajya Sabha
Rajya Sabha members are elected by an electoral college consisting of MLAs of the states using proportional representation.
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Which entity is primarily responsible for the delimitation of constituencies in India?
B · Delimitation Commission
Delimitation Commissions are appointed at intervals to fix boundaries of parliamentary and assembly constituencies.
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What is the maximum number of recognized National Parties allowed to use their reserved symbols throughout India?
A · Unlimited
Recognized National Parties have exclusive rights to use their reserved election symbols across the country without limit.
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Which among the following offenses is specifically addressed by the Election Laws concerning bribery?
A · Offering goods or money to influence voting
Election laws prohibit offering bribes such as goods or cash to influence voters' decisions.
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The Electoral Bonds scheme in India relates to:
A · Anonymity of political donations
Electoral Bonds are financial instruments designed to enable anonymous donations to political parties.
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Which of the following is a constitutional requirement for the timing of State Legislative Assembly elections?
A · Must be held within six months of the Assembly's dissolution
Legislative Assembly elections should be held within six months after the dissolution of the assembly as per constitutional conventions.
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Which of the following is a major ethical principle embedded in the Model Code of Conduct?
A · No use of communal appeal in campaigning
The Code forbids candidates from appealing to caste, community, religion, or language sentiments for votes.
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Which is the most significant limitation of the Anti-Defection Law in India?
A · It curtails freedom of speech and expression of legislators
The law restricts legislators from voting against their party, potentially limiting their freedom of speech and conscience.
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Identify the stage during Indian elections when the 'Polling Day' is declared.
C · After the announcement of election schedule
The Election Commission announces the polling date as part of the election schedule before nominations.
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Which one of the following is an example of a challenge related to Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in India’s elections?
B · Claims of tampering despite technical safeguards
Despite technological safeguards, some parties allege tampering with EVMs, making trust a challenge.
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What is the primary objective of the expenditure limit imposed on candidates during elections?
B · Ensure equal playing field and reduce money power influence
Expenditure limits aim to ensure fair competition by limiting excessive use of money which may skew election outcomes.
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Which of the following is a typical alliance formation motive among political parties in India?
A · Pooling resources to defeat a common rival
Parties form alliances primarily to consolidate votes and improve their chances against a dominant rival party.
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Which constitutional article empowers the Election Commission of India to conduct free and fair elections?
A · Article 324
Article 324 vests the Election Commission with the powers of superintendence, direction, and control of elections.
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Which among the following is a proposed reform to strengthen voter participation in India’s elections?
B · Reducing the voting age to 16 years
Reducing the voting age from 18 to 16 has been debated as a possible reform to increase electoral participation.
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Which of the following features is essential to the federal structure of India?
B · Division of powers between Union and States
A key feature of India's federal structure is the division of powers between the Union and the States as per the Constitution.
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Which of the following is NOT a feature of the federal system in India?
A · Rigid Constitution
Unlike classical federations, India has a partly flexible Constitution, therefore rigidity is not one of its federal features.
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Which of the following best defines the federal structure of India?
B · A system with two levels of government, each with exclusive powers
The Indian federal system involves two levels of government - Union and States - with exclusive powers and some concurrent powers.
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In the Indian Constitution, which list contains subjects on which only the Union Parliament can legislate?
C · Union List
The Union List contains subjects on which only the Union Parliament can legislate, according to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
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Which article empowers Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State List in the national interest?
C · Article 249
Article 249 allows Parliament to legislate on a State List subject if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds majority for national interest.
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Under which condition can the Parliament legislate on any subject in the State List during President's Rule in a state?
D · When the state legislature is suspended
During President's Rule, Parliament can legislate on State List subjects because the state legislature is either suspended or dissolved.
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Which of the following is a feature of financial relations under the Indian federal system?
B · The Finance Commission recommends distribution of taxes between Union and States
The Finance Commission is constitutionally mandated to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between Union and States.
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Which body adjudicates disputes regarding distribution of powers between Union and States under the federal structure?
A · Supreme Court of India
The Supreme Court acts as the guardian of the Constitution and resolves disputes regarding federal relations.
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What is the duration of the Finance Commission's recommendations’ validity unless repealed earlier?
A · 5 years
Finance Commissions are typically constituted every five years and their recommendations hold for that period unless altered earlier.
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Which of the following cases is a landmark Supreme Court judgment affirming the federal structure of India?
C · Bommai v. Union of India
The Bommai case reaffirmed the federal structure and restricted misuse of Article 356 imposing President's Rule.
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Which Act is considered a precursor to the federal structure adopted in the Indian Constitution?
B · Government of India Act, 1935
The Government of India Act 1935 laid the foundation for the federal system by providing for a union of provinces and princely states.
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Which article of the Indian Constitution originally contained provisions related to the distribution of powers between the Union and States?
B · Article 246
Article 246 defines the subject matter of the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List for legislative powers.
